Doc Brown's Christmas GENERAL SCIENCE QUIZ for teenagers of any age! click [?] (qizsci re-edit 06/12/2022)

Which is the catalyst in photosynthesis?
1. chlorophyll
2. glucose
3. oxygen
4. water
5. carbon dioxide
6. nitrate
Which is a product compound of photosynthesis?
1. chlorophyll
2. glucose
3. oxygen
4. water
5. carbon dioxide
6. nitrate
Which is an element product of photosynthesis?
1. chlorophyll
2. glucose
3. oxygen
4. water
5. carbon dioxide
6. nitrate
Which is a reactant molecule in photosynthesis?
1. chlorophyll
2. glucose
3. oxygen
4. water
5. nitrate
Which is a reactant molecule for photosynthesis?
1. chlorophyll
2. glucose
3. oxygen
4. carbon dioxide
5. nitrate
Which organ controls the central nervous system?
1. brain
2. liver
3. heart
4. kidney
5. lungs
6. intestine
Which organ processes blood, absorbs nutrients from it, and removes harmful substances to detoxify blood?
1. brain
2. liver
3. heart
4. kidney
5. lungs
6. intestine
Which organ is a complex muscle and valve system that pumps blood around the body?
1. brain
2. liver
3. heart
4. kidney
5. lungs
6. intestine
Which organ cleans the blood of toxins and changes waste into urine?
1. brain
2. liver
3. heart
4. kidneys
5. lungs
6. intestine
Which organ exchanges the gases oxygen and carbon dioxide?
1. brain
2. liver
3. heart
4. kidneys
5. lungs
6. intestine
Which organ breaks down raw food into substances that can be absorbed into the blood stream?
1. brain
2. liver
3. heart
4. kidneys
5. lungs
6. intestine
Which chemical element in needed in a healthy diet that is an important part of bone structure?
1. calcium (Ca)
2. iron (Fe)
3. iodine (I)
4. cobalt (Co)
Which chemical element in needed in a healthy diet to help move oxygen around your body?
1. calcium (Ca)
2. iron (Fe)
3. iodine (I)
4. cobalt (Co)
Which chemical element in needed in a healthy diet for the haemoglobin in your blood?
1. calcium (Ca)
2. iron (Fe)
3. iodine (I)
4. cobalt (Co)
Which chemical element in needed in a healthy diet for the hormone thyroxine?
1. calcium (Ca)
2. iron (Fe)
3. iodine (I)
4. cobalt (Co)
Which chemical element in needed in a healthy diet for vitamin B12?
1. calcium (Ca)
2. iron (Fe)
3. iodine (I)
4. cobalt (Co)
Which of these is only found in plant cells to make the structure stronger and more rigid?
1. cell wall
2. cell membrane
3. cytoplasm
4. vacuoles
5. starch granules
6. chloroplasts
Which of these is found in all plant and animal cells and allows and controls nutrients entering and waste products leaving the cell?
1. cell wall
2. cell membrane
3. cytoplasm
4. vacuole
5. nucleus
6. mitochondria
Which of these is found in all plant and animal cells?, chemical reactions occur in it as it contains a solution of chemicals including all the nutrients passed into the cell and the waste products to be removed.
1. cell wall
2. cell membrane
3. cytoplasm
4. vacuole
5. nucleus
6. mitochondrion
Which of these is permanently found in all plant cells, relatively large and containing a sugary liquid, and either absent from, or small and temporary in animal cells, and containing waste products?
1. cell wall
2. cell membrane
3. cytoplasm
4. vacuole
5. mitochondria
6. chloroplasts
Which of these is found in all plant and animal cells and chemically controls all the essential activities and functions of the cell
1. cell wall
2. cell membrane
3. cytoplasm
4. vacuole
5. nucleus
6. mitochondrion
Which of these is an organelle, and the site of photosynthesis in plant cells?
1. cell wall
2. cell membrane
3. cytoplasm
4. vacuole
5. nucleus
6. chloroplast
Which of these is an organelle, the source of energy to power the chemistry of a cell?
1. mitochondrion
2. cell membrane
3. cytoplasm
4. vacuole
5. nucleus
6. chloroplast
Where might you find starch granules in a plant cell?
1. cell wall
2. cytoplasm
3. cell membrane
4. vacuole
5. nucleus
6. chloroplast
Which of these is produced from glucose molecules to store energy in plants?
1. starch granules
2. water
3. protein
4. chlorophyll
5. carbon dioxide
Which of these is produced directly from photosynthesis in plants?
1. starch
2. glucose
3. water
4. chlorophyll
5. carbon dioxide
Which of these is produced directly by photosynthesis in plants?
1. starch
2. water
3. oxygen
4. chlorophyll
5. carbon dioxide
Which of these is needed for photosynthesis in plants?
1. starch
2. glucose
3. oxygen
4. water
5. nitrate
Which of these is needed for photosynthesis in plants?
1. starch
2. glucose
3. oxygen
4. nitrate
5. carbon dioxide
Which of these is the catalyst for photosynthesis in plants?
1. chlorophyll
2. glucose
3. oxygen
4. nitrate
5. carbon dioxide
Which of these is essential for respiration in the mitochondria of cells?
1. oxygen
2. water
3. protein
4. starch
5. carbon dioxide
Which of these is a product of respiration in the mitochondria of cells?
1. oxygen
2. water
3. glucose
4. starch
5. fat
Which of these is a product of respiration in the mitochondria of cells?
1. glucose
2. fat
3. carbon dioxide
4. starch
5. oxygen
Which of these is essential for respiration in the mitochondria of cells?
1. starch
2. water
3. protein
4. glucose
5. carbon dioxide
Which part of the digestive system is mechanically breaks up food and digestion aided from enzymes secreted by the salivary glands?
1. mouth
2. oesophagus (gullet)
3. stomach
4. large intestine
5. small intestine
6. rectum
Which part of the digestive system connects the mouth to the stomach?
1. anus
2. oesophagus (gullet)
3. rectum
4. large intestine
5. small intestine
Which part of the digestive system mechanically churns up food and enzymes are secreted to digest proteins in acid conditions?
1. mouth
2. oesophagus (gullet)
3. stomach
4. large intestine
5. small intestine
6. rectum
Which part of the digestive system is where water is absorbed from the residue of digestion, to produce faeces?
1. mouth
2. oesophagus (gullet)
3. stomach
4. large intestine
5. small intestine
6. rectum
Which part of the digestive system where digestion of food broken down in the stomach, is completed by several secreted enzymes, and absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream?
1. rectum
2. oesophagus (gullet)
3. anus
4. large intestine
5. small intestine
Which part of the digestive system stores the faeces?
1. anus
2. oesophagus (gullet)
3. rectum
4. large intestine
5. small intestine
Which part of the digestive system controls the ejection of waste material from digestion?
1. rectum
2. oesophagus (gullet)
3. stomach
4. large intestine
5. small intestine
6. anus
Which enzyme catalyses the conversion of starch to maltose and other sugars?
1. amylase
2. protease
3. zymase
4. lipase
5. trypsin
Which enzyme helps break down and digest proteins to give amino acids which can be absorbed in the small intestine?
1. amylase
2. protease
3. zymase
4. lipase
5. maltase
Which enzyme catalyses the fermentation of glucose sugar to ethanol (ethyl alcohol, 'alcohol')?
1. amylase
2. protease
3. zymase
4. lipase
5. maltase
6. trypsin
Which enzyme breaks down fats to help digest them?
1. amylase
2. protease
3. zymase
4. lipase
5. maltase
6. trypsin
Which enzyme converts maltose to glucose?
1. amylase
2. protease
3. zymase
4. lipase
5. maltase
6. trypsin
Which enzyme breaks down and helps digest proteins?
1. amylase
2. maltase
3. zymase
4. lipase
5. trypsin
In which part of a plant cell does photosynthesis take place?
1. chloroplast
2. cell wall
3. cytoplasm
4. nucleus
Which part of a plant absorbs mineral ions?
1. leaves
2. root hairs
3. stem
4. flower
Which of these is a thin hairlike strand that enables microorganisms to move around?
1. flagellum
2. villi
3. cilia
4. hair follicle
Which of these are thin hairlike strands that can move mucous up the throat?
1. flagellum
2. villi
3. cilia
4. hair follicle
Which of these are thin structures that absorb nutrients from the gut?
1. flagellum
2. villi
3. cilia
4. hair follicle
Which of these is a small opening in the skin through which a hair grows?
1. flagellum
2. villi
3. cilia
4. hair follicle
Which organ of the human body allows the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide?
1. lungs
2. kidney
3. liver
4. bladder
Which organ of the human body removes waste from the blood, purifies it and makes urine?
1. lungs
2. kidney
3. liver
4. bladder
Which organ of the human body produces secretions to help digestion, stores energy foods and is damaged by too much alcohol?
1. lungs
2. kidney
3. liver
4. bladder
Which organ of the human body can temporary store urine?
1. lungs
2. kidney
3. liver
4. bladder
Which of these is the largest?
1. organism
2. cell
3. tissue
4. organelle
Which of these is the smallest?
1. organism
2. cell
3. tissue
4. organelle
Which part corresponds to the umbilical cord?
1. W
2. Y
3. N
4. Z
5. R
6. P
Which part corresponds to the placenta?
1. W
2. Y
3. N
4. Z
5. R
6. P
Which part corresponds to the cervix?
1. W
2. Y
3. N
4. Z
5. R
6. P
Which part corresponds to the vagina?
1. W
2. Y
3. N
4. Z
5. R
6. P
Which part corresponds to the uterus lining?
1. R
2. P
3. U
4. S
5. N
6. Z
Which part corresponds to the amniotic fluid?
1. R
2. P
3. U
4. S
5. N
6. Z
Which part corresponds to the ovaries?
1. R
2. P
3. U
4. S
5. N
6. Z
Which part corresponds to the oviduct?
1. R
2. P
3. U
4. S
5. N
6. Z
Which word matches the phrase 'the release of the egg cell (ovum) from the ovary'?
1. ovulation
2. implantation
3. menstruation
4. contraction
5. fertilisation
Which word matches the phrase 'when the embryo beds itself into the uterus lining to develop into the foetus'?
1. ovulation
2. implantation
3. menstruation
4. contraction
5. fertilisation
Which word matches the phrase 'the breaking down of the uterus lining with bleeding in the female fertility cycle'?
1. ovulation
2. implantation
3. menstruation
4. contraction
5. fertilisation
Which word matches the phrase 'what the uterus wall does before childbirth'?
1. ovulates
2. implants
3. menstruates
4. contracts
5. fertilises
Which word matches the phrase ''the female sex cell?
1. ovum
2. embryo
3. foetus
4. sperm
Which word matches the phrase ''initially formed by the fusion of the female and male sex cells?
1. ovum
2. embryo
3. foetus
4. sperm
Which word matches the phrase ''offspring with recognisable human features?
1. ovum
2. embryo
3. foetus
4. sperm
Which word matches the phrase ''the male sex cell?
1. ovum
2. embryo
3. foetus
4. sperm
Which of the following is TRUE?
1. Girls are born with thousands of unripened egg cells in their ovaries.
2. Adult males produce and store all their sperm in adolescence.
3. The female egg cell is smaller than most other specialised cells so it can easily move down the fallopian tube to meet a male sperm cell.
4. The female menstrual cycle takes about 9 months.
Which of the following is TRUE?
1. Girls are born with just a few unripened egg cells in their ovaries
2. Adult males can continually produce sperm.
3. The female egg cell is smaller than most other specialised cells so it can easily move down the fallopian tube to meet a male sperm cell.
4. The female menstrual cycle takes about 9 months.
Which of the following is TRUE?
1. Girls are born with just a few unripened egg cells in their ovaries
2. Adult males produce and store all their sperm in adolescence.
3. The female egg cell is larger than most other specialised cells because it has extra food for growth and development after fertilisation.
4. The female menstrual cycle takes about 9 months.
Which of the following is TRUE?
1. Girls are born with just a few unripened egg cells in their ovaries
2. Adult males produce and store all their sperm in adolescence.
3. The female egg cell is smaller than most other specialised cells so it can easily move down the fallopian tube to meet a male sperm cell.
4. The female menstrual cycle takes about 1 month.
Which is an animal that eats plants and animals?
1. omnivore
2. carnivore
3. herbivore
4. vegetarian
Which is an animal that only eats animals?
1. omnivore
2. carnivore
3. herbivore
4. vegetarian
Given the food chain: rose ==> ladybird ==> blue tit ==> kestrel
Which is/are prey?
1. rose ony
2. ladybird and blue tit
3. blue tit only
4. rose and ladybird
Given the food chain: cabbage ==> butterfly ==> blue tit ==> kestrel
Which is the producer?
1. cabbage
2. butterfly
3. blue tit
4. kestrel
Given the food chain: cabbage ==> butterfly ==> blue tit ==> kestrel
Which is the primary consumer?
1. cabbage
2. butterfly
3. blue tit
4. kestrel
Given the food chain: cabbage ==> butterfly ==> blue tit ==> kestrel
Which is the secondary consumer?
1. cabbage
2. butterfly
3. blue tit
4. kestrel
Given the food chain: cabbage ==> butterfly ==> blue tit ==> kestrel
Which is the tertiary consumer?
1. cabbage
2. butterfly
3. blue tit
4. kestrel
Given the food chain: cabbage ==> butterfly ==> blue tit ==> kestrel
Which is the top carnivore and top predator?
1. cabbage
2. butterfly
3. blue tit
4. kestrel
Given the food chain: cabbage ==> butterfly ==> blue tit ==> kestrel
Which is the herbivore?
1. cabbage
2. butterfly
3. blue tit
4. kestrel
Given the food chain: cabbage ==> butterfly ==> blue tit ==> kestrel
Which is/are prey?
1. cabbage only
2. butterfly only
3. both blue tit and butterfly
4. blue tit only
Which of the following animals has thick fur for thermal insulation?
1. bear
2. seagull
3. cheetah
4. shark
Which of the following animals has low density bones to travel great distances?
1. bear
2. seagull
3. cheetah
4. shark
Which of the following animals strong leg muscles for moving fast?
1. bear
2. seagull
3. cheetah
4. shark
Which of the following animals has a streamlined body for fast movement?
1. polar bear
2. seagull
3. cheetah
4. shark
Which of the following is cold blooded, lives in water, has gills and paired fins?
1. fish
2. amphibian
3. reptile
4. bird
5. mammal
Which of the following is cold blooded, lays eggs in water, spends first part of life in water and has gills, slimy skin, lives on land in adult life breathing with lungs?
1. fish
2. amphibian
3. reptile
4. bird
5. mammal
Which of the following is cold blooded, dry scaly waterproof skin, lays eggs on land?
1. fish
2. amphibian
3. reptile
4. bird
5. mammal
Which of the following is warm blooded, lays eggs on land, covered in feathers?
1. fish
2. amphibian
3. reptile
4. bird
5. mammal
Which of the following is warm blooded, body covered in hair, gives birth to live young which are fed on milk from special glands?
1. fish
2. amphibian
3. reptile
4. bird
5. mammal
Which of the following describes a snail?
1. invertebrate without jointed legs
2. invertebrate with jointed legs
3. cold blooded vertebrate
4. warm blooded vertebrate
Which of the following describes an ant?
1. invertebrate without jointed legs
2. invertebrate with jointed legs
3. cold blooded vertebrate
4. warm blooded vertebrate
Which of the following describes a salmon?
1. invertebrate without jointed legs
2. invertebrate with jointed legs
3. cold blooded vertebrate
4. warm blooded vertebrate
Which of the following describes an eagle?
1. invertebrate without jointed legs
2. invertebrate with jointed legs
3. cold blooded vertebrate
4. warm blooded vertebrate
Your personal features are the result of genetically inherited characteristics and/or your life style. Which of the following factors applies to your eye colour?
1. only genetic factors
2. a combination of genetic and lifestyle factors
3. only lifestyle factors
4. nothing to do with genetic or lifestyle factors
Your personal features are the result of genetically inherited characteristics and/or your life style. Which of the following factors applies to your face shape?
1. only genetic factors
2. a combination of genetic and lifestyle factors
3. only lifestyle factors
4. nothing to do with genetic or lifestyle factors
Your personal features are the result of genetically inherited characteristics and/or your life style. Which of the following factors applies to your hair length?
1. only genetic factors
2. a combination of genetic and lifestyle factors
3. only lifestyle factors
4. nothing to do with genetic or lifestyle factors
Your personal features are the result of genetically inherited characteristics and/or your life style. Which of the following factors applies to your natural hair colour?
1. only genetic factors
2. a combination of genetic and lifestyle factors
3. only lifestyle factors
4. nothing to do with genetic or lifestyle factors
Your personal features are the result of genetically inherited characteristics and/or your life style. Which of the following factors applies to your height?
1. only genetic factors
2. a combination of genetic and lifestyle factors
3. only lifestyle factors
4. nothing to do with genetic or lifestyle factors
Your personal features are the result of genetically inherited characteristics and/or your life style. Which of the following factors applies to your height?
1. only genetic factors
2. a combination of genetic and lifestyle factors
3. only lifestyle factors
4. nothing to do with genetic or lifestyle factors
Your personal features are the result of genetically inherited characteristics and/or your life style. Which of the following factors applies to your body weight?
1. only genetic factors
2. a combination of genetic and lifestyle factors
3. only lifestyle factors
4. nothing to do with genetic or lifestyle factors
Your personal features are the result of genetically inherited characteristics and/or your life style. Which of the following factors applies to your shoe style?
1. only genetic factors
2. a combination of genetic and lifestyle factors
3. only lifestyle factors
4. nothing to do with genetic or lifestyle factors
Your personal features are the result of genetically inherited characteristics and/or your life style. Which of the following factors applies to your chance of throwing a six with a dice?
1. only genetic factors
2. a combination of genetic and lifestyle factors
3. only lifestyle factors
4. nothing to do with genetic or lifestyle factors
A healthy diet needs a balance of many things. Which is a main source of energy?
1. carbohydrates
2. protein
3. fibre
4. vitamins
5. minerals
6. water
A healthy diet needs a balance of many things. Which is specifically for tissue muscle repairs?
1. carbohydrates
2. protein
3. fibre
4. vitamins
5. minerals
6. water
A healthy diet needs a balance of many things. Which is the nutrient solvent for the chemical reactions of life?
1. carbohydrates
2. protein
3. fibre
4. vitamins
5. minerals
6. water
A healthy diet needs a balance of many things. Which is important for the bowel to help avoid constipation?
1. carbohydrates
2. protein
3. fibre
4. vitamins
5. minerals
A healthy diet needs a balance of many things. Which is an energy store and organ heat insulator?
1. carbohydrates
2. protein
3. fibre
4. fats
5. minerals
6. water
A healthy diet needs a balance of many things. Which is needed in small amounts for good health?
1. carbohydrates
2. protein
3. fibre
4. fats
5. vitamins
6. water
A healthy diet needs a balance of many things. Which is needed in small amounts for good health?
1. carbohydrates
2. protein
3. fibre
4. fats
5. mineral ions
6. water
A healthy diet needs a balance of many things. Bread, potatoes and pasta are ALL good sources of?
1. carbohydrates
2. protein
3. fibre
4. fats
5. mineral ions
6. water
A healthy diet needs a balance of many things. Meat, fish and cheese are ALL good sources of?
1. carbohydrates
2. protein
3. fibre
4. fats
5. mineral ions
6. water
A healthy diet needs a balance of many things. Vegetables and wholemeal bread are ALL good sources of?
1. fats
2. protein
3. fibre
4. water
5. mineral ions
A healthy diet needs a balance of many things. Butter, olive oil and margarine are ALL good sources of?
1. fats
2. protein
3. fibre
4. water
5. mineral ions
A healthy diet needs a balance of many things. Fruit and vegetables are ALL good sources of essential?
1. fats
2. protein
3. fibre
4. water
5. vitamins
Small amounts of certain nutrients are needed for good health and vitality. Which of the following dietary needs is mainly obtained from milk and cheese?
1. calcium
2. iron
3. vitamin C
4. sodium
Small amounts of certain nutrients are needed for good health and vitality. Which of the following dietary needs is mainly obtained from liver and green vegetables?
1. calcium
2. iron
3. vitamin C
4. sodium
Small amounts of certain nutrients are needed for good health and vitality. Which of the following dietary needs is mainly obtained from vegetables and fruit, but not meat?
1. calcium
2. iron
3. vitamin C
4. sodium
Small amounts of certain nutrients are needed for good health and vitality. Which of the following dietary needs is obtained from table salt?
1. calcium ion
2. iron ion
3. carbonate ion
4. sodium ion
Small amounts of certain nutrients are needed for good health and vitality. Which of the following dietary needs is obtained from table salt?
1. calcium ion
2. iron ion
3. carbonate ion
4. chloride ion
Small amounts of certain nutrients are needed for good health and vitality. Which of the following part of our diet is needed for healthy bone and teeth structure?
1. calcium
2. iron
3. vitamin C
4. sodium
Small amounts of certain nutrients are needed for good health and vitality. Which of the following part of our diet is specifically needed for healthy tissue repairs?
1. vitamin B12
2. iron
3. vitamin C
4. sodium
Which of the following is the most abundant type of molecule in the body?
1. fats
2. protein
3. fibre
4. water
5. vitamins
Which of the following are small molecules or ions that can be directly absorbed by the small intestine without prior digestion?
1. fats
2. protein
3. fibre
4. vitamins
5. carbohydrates
Which of the following are large molecules broken down by alkali and enzymes to small molecules in the small intestine?
1. fats
2. protein
3. fibre
4. vitamins
5. carbohydrates
Which of the following are small molecules that can be directly absorbed by the small intestine without digestion of larger molecules?
1. fats
2. protein
3. fibre
4. sugars
5. starch
Which of the following specifically helps bowel function and reduce risk of colon cancer?
1. fats
2. protein
3. fibre
4. sugars
5. starch
Which of the following matches 'making small glucose molecules from big starch molecules'?
1. digestion
2. diffusion
3. transportation
4. respiration
Which of the following matches 'glucose molecules absorbed into cells through a membrane'?
1. digestion
2. diffusion
3. transportation
4. ingestion
Which of the following matches 'oxygen and glucose are moved around in the bloodstream'?
1. digestion
2. diffusion
3. transportation
4. respiration
Which of the following matches 'glucose reacts with oxygen to release energy'?
1. digestion
2. diffusion
3. transportation
4. respiration
You are given four gas analysis results from fossil fuel combustion or human respiration. Which might be the composition of bunsen flame gases?
1. 74% nitrogen, 1% oxygen, 11% carbon dioxide, 14% water vapour
2. 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.04% carbon dioxide, 1% water vapour
3. 76% nitrogen, 15% oxygen, 4% carbon dioxide, 5% water vapour
4. 75% nitrogen, 10% oxygen, 8% carbon dioxide, 7% water vapour
You are given four gas analysis results from fossil fuel combustion or human respiration. Which might be the composition of inhaled air?
1. 74% nitrogen, 1% oxygen, 11% carbon dioxide, 14% water vapour
2. 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.04% carbon dioxide, 1% water vapour
3. 76% nitrogen, 15% oxygen, 4% carbon dioxide, 5% water vapour
4. 75% nitrogen, 10% oxygen, 8% carbon dioxide, 7% water vapour
You are given four gas analysis results from fossil fuel combustion or human respiration. Which might be the composition of exhaled air?
1. 74% nitrogen, 1% oxygen, 11% carbon dioxide, 14% water vapour
2. 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.04% carbon dioxide, 1% water vapour
3. 76% nitrogen, 15% oxygen, 4% carbon dioxide, 5% water vapour
4. 75% nitrogen, 5% oxygen, 13% carbon dioxide, 7% water vapour
The body has many natural defences against harmful materials including microbes that cause disease. Which 'defence' relates to your eyes?
1. produces an antiseptic liquid when irritated
2. acts as a barrier to germs and produces an antiseptic oil
3. sticky mucous traps microbes which is removed by ciliated cells
4. platelets produce clots which dry to form a barrier to germs
5. white cells surround and destroy microbes
The body has many natural defences against harmful materials including microbes that cause disease. Which 'defence' relates to your uninjured skin?
1. produces an antiseptic liquid when irritated
2. acts as a barrier to germs and produces an antiseptic oil
3. sticky mucous traps microbes which is removed by ciliated cells
4. platelets produce clots which dry to form a barrier to germs
5. white cells surround and destroy microbes
The body has many natural defences against harmful materials including microbes that cause disease. Which 'defence' relates to your respiratory system?
1. produces an antiseptic liquid when irritated
2. acts as a barrier to germs and produces an antiseptic oil
3. sticky mucous traps microbes which is removed by ciliated cells
4. platelets produce clots which dry to form a barrier to germs
5. white cells surround and destroy microbes
The body has many natural defences against harmful materials including microbes that cause disease. Which 'defence' relates to a skin cut?
1. produces an antiseptic liquid when irritated
2. acts as a barrier to germs and produces an antiseptic oil
3. sticky mucous traps microbes which is removed by ciliated cells
4. platelets produce clots which dry to form a barrier to germs
5. white cells surround and destroy microbes
The body has many natural defences against harmful materials including microbes that cause disease. Which 'defence' relates to your blood system?
1. produces an antiseptic liquid when irritated
2. acts as a barrier to germs and produces an antiseptic oil
3. sticky mucous traps microbes which is removed by ciliated cells
4. contains acid that kills most harmful bacteria
5. white cells surround and destroy microbes
The body has many natural defences against harmful materials including microbes that cause disease. Which 'defence' relates to your stomach?
1. contains acid that kills most harmful bacteria
2. acts as a barrier to germs and produces an antiseptic oil
3. sticky mucous traps microbes which is removed by ciliated cells
4. platelets produce clots which dry to form a barrier to germs
5. white cells surround and destroy microbes
Which of the following matches 'it has a protein coat, has genes, no cytoplasm, can only reproduce in living 'host' cells and damages them, not destroyed by antibiotics'?
1. virus
2. bacteria
3. fungus
4. algae
Which of the following matches ''it has a cell wall (not cellulose) and cell membrane, has genes and cytoplasm, no nucleus, produces toxins, can reproduce outside living '?
1. virus
2. bacteria
3. fungus
4. algae
Which of the following matches ''it is a single cell or cellular filaments with nucleus containing genes surrounded by cytoplasm but does not contain chlorophyll?
1. virus
2. bacteria
3. fungus
4. algae
Which of the following matches 'it is a single cell or cellular filaments with nucleus containing genes surrounded by cytoplasm but does contain chlorophyll'?
1. virus
2. bacteria
3. fungus
4. algae
Which word is associated with the phrase "injection of a dead or weakened micro-organism to stimulate production of antibodies"?
1. vaccination
2. infection
3. antiseptic
4. antibiotic
5. pathogen
6. antiviral
Which word is associated with the phrase "the result of a micro-organism entering the body and causing disease"?
1. vaccination
2. infection
3. antiseptic
4. antibiotic
5. pathogen
6. antiviral
Which word is associated with the phrase "kills, or prevents the growth of bacteria on external parts of the body"?
1. vaccination
2. infection
3. antiseptic
4. antibiotic
5. pathogen
6. antiviral
Which word is associated with the phrase "kills, or prevents the growth of bacteria in the body"?
1. vaccination
2. infection
3. antiseptic
4. antibiotic
5. pathogen
6. antiviral
Which word is associated with the phrase "a micro-organism that can cause a disease"?
1. vaccination
2. infection
3. antiseptic
4. antibiotic
5. pathogen
6. antiviral
Which word is associated with the phrase "inhibits virus multiplication"?
1. vaccination
2. infection
3. antiseptic
4. antibiotic
5. pathogen
6. antiviral
Which word is associated with the phrase "a protein made by white blood cells that can help destroy microbes"?
1. vaccination
2. infection
3. antibody
4. antibiotic
5. pathogen
6. antiviral
In an experiment to investigate the speed of 200g of dough rising in bread making, the following sugar additions and temperatures where used. For which set of conditions would you expect the dough to rise the slowest?
1. 2.0g sugar, 20^oC
2. 3.5g sugar, 35^oC
3. 2.0g sugar, 35^oC
4. 3.5g sugar, 20^oC
In an experiment to investigate the speed of 200g of dough rising in bread making, the following sugar additions and temperatures where used. For which set of conditions would you expect the dough to rise the fastest?
1. 2.0g sugar, 20^oC
2. 3.5g sugar, 35^oC
3. 2.0g sugar, 35^oC
4. 3.5g sugar, 20^oC
Which of the following is TRUE?
1. antibiotics like penicillin can stop bacteria reproducing
2. viruses can't cause diseases
3. white blood cells can't kill harmful micro-organisms
4. antibodies in your blood help form a protective scab over a cut
5. while still in the womb, a child cannot get antibodies from its mother
6. antibiotics can destroy viruses
Which of the following is TRUE?
1. antibiotics like penicillin can't stop bacteria reproducing
2. viruses can cause diseases
3. white blood cells can't kill harmful micro-organisms
4. antibodies in your blood help form a protective scab over a cut
5. while still in the womb, a child cannot get antibodies from its mother
6. antibiotics can destroy viruses
Which of the following is TRUE?
1. antibiotics like penicillin can't stop bacteria reproducing
2. viruses can't cause diseases
3. white blood cells can kill harmful micro-organisms
4. antibodies in your blood help form a protective scab over a cut
5. while still in the womb, a child cannot get antibodies from its mother
6. antibiotics can destroy viruses
Which of the following is TRUE?
1. antibiotics like penicillin can't stop bacteria reproducing
2. viruses can't cause diseases
3. white blood cells can't kill harmful micro-organisms
4. platelets in your blood help form a protective scab over a cut
5. while still in the womb, a child cannot get antibodies from its mother
6. antibiotics can destroy viruses
Which of the following is TRUE?
1. antibiotics like penicillin can't stop bacteria reproducing
2. viruses can't cause diseases
3. white blood cells can't kill harmful micro-organisms
4. antibodies in your blood help form a protective scab over a cut
5. while still in the womb, a child can get antibodies from its mother
6. antibiotics can destroy viruses
Which of the following is TRUE?
1. antibiotics like penicillin can't stop bacteria reproducing
2. viruses can't cause diseases
3. white blood cells can't kill harmful micro-organisms
4. antibodies in your blood help form a protective scab over a cut
5. while still in the womb, a child cannot get antibodies from its mother
6. antibiotics cannot destroy viruses
The diagram shows possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which section represents the producer?
1. section u
2. section v
3. section w
4. section x
The diagram shows possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which section represents the primary consumer?
1. section u
2. section v
3. section w
4. section x
The diagram shows possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which section represents the secondary consumer?
1. section u
2. section v
3. section w
4. section x
The diagram shows possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which section represents the tertiary consumer?
1. section u
2. section v
3. section w
4. section x
The diagram shows five possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which number pyramid best represents the food chain: mosses => beetles => birds => sparrowhawk?
1. number pyramid 1
2. number pyramid 2
3. number pyramid 3
4. number pyramid 4
5. number pyramid 5
The diagram shows five possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which number pyramid best represents the food chain: grass => rabbits => foxes => fleas?
1. number pyramid 1
2. number pyramid 2
3. number pyramid 3
4. number pyramid 4
5. number pyramid 5
The diagram shows five possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which number pyramid best represents the food chain: grass => cattle => ticks => birds?
1. number pyramid 1
2. number pyramid 2
3. number pyramid 3
4. number pyramid 4
5. number pyramid 5
The diagram shows five possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which number pyramid best represents the food chain: rose bush => greenfly => ladybirds => swallows?
1. number pyramid 1
2. number pyramid 2
3. number pyramid 3
4. number pyramid 4
5. number pyramid 5
The diagram shows five possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which number pyramid best represents the food chain: fruit bush => caterpillars => birds => fleas?
1. number pyramid 1
2. number pyramid 2
3. number pyramid 3
4. number pyramid 4
5. number pyramid 5
The diagram shows five possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which number pyramid best represents the food chain: algae => crabs => seals => eskimos?
1. number pyramid 1
2. number pyramid 2
3. number pyramid 3
4. number pyramid 4
5. number pyramid 5
The diagram shows five possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which number pyramid best represents the food chain: grasses => zebra => lion => fleas?
1. number pyramid 1
2. number pyramid 2
3. number pyramid 3
4. number pyramid 4
5. number pyramid 5
The diagram shows five possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which number pyramid best represents the food chain: grass => antelope => mites => birds?
1. number pyramid 1
2. number pyramid 2
3. number pyramid 3
4. number pyramid 4
5. number pyramid 5
The diagram shows five possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which number pyramid best represents the food chain: tree => beetles => mice => owls?
1. number pyramid 1
2. number pyramid 2
3. number pyramid 3
4. number pyramid 4
5. number pyramid 5
The diagram shows five possible number pyramids for a four organism food chain. Which number pyramid best represents the food chain: tree => monkeys => tigers => mosquitos?
1. number pyramid 1
2. number pyramid 2
3. number pyramid 3
4. number pyramid 4
5. number pyramid 5
Which word matches the phrase "an evolved characteristic of an organism that helps it survive in its habitat"?
1. adaptation
2. reproduction
3. variation
4. mutation
Which word matches the phrase "to form the next generation in an organism population"?
1. adaptation
2. reproduction
3. variation
4. mutation
Which word matches the phrase "the differences that naturally occur in an organism population due to different gene combinations"?
1. adaptation
2. reproduction
3. variation
4. mutation
Which word matches the phrase "a change in the genetic information before the next generation is produced"?
1. adaptation
2. reproduction
3. variation
4. mutation
Which word fits with the phrase choosing characteristics you want to modify in the offspring by natural methods?
1. selective breeding
2. genetic information
3. genetic modification
4. natural selection
Which word fits with the phrase the 'blueprint' for the characteristics of offspring?
1. selective breeding
2. genetic information
3. genetic modification
4. natural selection
Which word fits with the phrase altering the information in genes before reproducing the organism?
1. selective breeding
2. genetic information
3. genetic modification
4. natural selection
Which word fits with the phrase survival of the organisms best adapted to their habitat or environment?
1. selective breeding
2. genetic information
3. genetic modification
4. natural selection
In mammalian sexual reproduction, which cell contains the female genes?
1. cell 4
2. cell 5
3. cell 3
4. cell 6
In mammalian sexual reproduction, which cell contains the male genes?
1. cell 4
2. cell 5
3. cell 3
4. cell 6
In mammalian sexual reproduction, which cell contains the genetic information from the female?
1. cell 3
2. cell 6
3. cell 4
4. cell 5
In mammalian sexual reproduction, which cell contains the genetic information from the male?
1. cell 3
2. cell 6
3. cell 4
4. cell 5
In mammalian sexual reproduction, which cell helps move mucous along in the throat?
1. cell 3
2. cell 6
3. cell 4
4. cell 1
The tendency to form freckles in sunlight is genetically inherited. If Molly and Mark have freckles who might you predict to also have freckles in the 3rd generation?
1. Joey or Selena
2. only Joey
3. only Selena
4. neither Joey nor Selena
The tendency to form freckles in sunlight is genetically inherited. If only Phil has freckles in the 1st generation and only Joey in the 3rd generation who is most likely to have freckles in the 2nd generation?
1. Tom
2. Mark
3. Sue
4. Ros
The tendency to form freckles in sunlight is genetically inherited. If only Fred and Sue have freckles in the first two generations, who is most likely to have freckles in the 3rd generation?
1. only Joey
2. only Selena
3. Joey or Selena
4. neither Joey nor Selena
The tendency to form freckles in sunlight is genetically inherited. If Fred and Selena have freckles, who is most likely to have freckles too?
1. Tom
2. Mark
3. Phil
4. Sue
Which of the following is NOT true?
1. genetic information is stored in the cell cytoplasm
2. identical twins are formed from a fertilised egg that divides into two complete cells
3. fertilisation is when the nuclei of the egg cell and sperm combine
4. non-identical twins grow from separately fertilised eggs
Which of the following is NOT true?
1. genetic information is stored in the cell nucleus
2. identical twins are formed from two identical fertilised eggs
3. fertilisation is when the nuclei of the egg cell and sperm combine
4. non-identical twins grow from separately fertilised eggs
Which of the following is NOT true?
1. genetic information is stored in the cell nucleus
2. identical twins are formed from a fertilised egg that divides into two complete cells
3. fertilisation is when the cytoplasm of the egg cell and sperm combine
4. non-identical twins grow from separately fertilised eggs
Which of the following is NOT true?
1. genetic information is stored in the cell nucleus
2. identical twins are formed from a fertilised egg that divides into two complete cells
3. fertilisation is when the nuclei of the egg cell and sperm combine
4. non-identical twins grow from the same fertilised egg
Which of the following is NOT true?
1. offspring get their genetic information from only the sperm cell
2. non-identical twins are likely to have some similar inherited characteristics
3. different lifestyles will result in physical differences between identical twins
4. brothers and sisters do not inherit exactly the same genetic information
Which of the following is NOT true?
1. offspring get their genetic information from both the sperm and egg cells
2. non-identical twins are unlikely to have any similar inherited characteristics
3. different lifestyles will result in physical differences between identical twins
4. brothers or sisters do not inherit exactly the same genetic information
Which of the following is NOT true?
1. offspring get their genetic information from both the sperm and egg cells
2. non-identical twins are likely to have some similar inherited characteristics
3. different lifestyles will not result in physical differences between identical twins
4. brothers or sisters do not inherit exactly the same genetic information
Which of the following is NOT true?
1. offspring get their genetic information from both the sperm and egg cells
2. non-identical twins are likely to have some similar inherited characteristics
3. different lifestyles will result in physical differences between identical twins
4. brothers or sisters inherit exactly the same genetic information
Which word matches the phrase "substance that slows down the brain and makes you feel sleepy or more relaxed"?
1. sedative
2. stimulant
3. hallucinogen
4. analgesic
Which word matches the phrase "substance that speeds up your brain and makes you more active"?
1. sedative
2. stimulant
3. hallucinogen
4. analgesic
Which word matches the phrase "substance that gives you powerful experiences that are not 'real' and you lack control"?
1. sedative
2. stimulant
3. hallucinogen
4. analgesic
Which word matches the phrase "substance that reduces the feelings of pain"?
1. sedative
2. stimulant
3. hallucinogen
4. analgesic
Which of the following is NOT true about drinking alcoholic beverages?
1. a little alcohol can cause serious liver damage
2. harmful alcohol can reach an unborn baby through the placenta
3. alcoholic drinks tend to slow down your reactions
4. alcohol is rapidly absorbed into your bloodstream from the stomach
Which of the following is NOT true about drinking alcoholic beverages?
1. too much alcohol can cause serious liver damage
2. alcohol cannot reach an unborn baby through the placenta
3. alcoholic drinks tend to slow down your reactions
4. alcohol is rapidly absorbed into your bloodstream from the stomach
Which of the following is NOT true about drinking alcoholic beverages?
1. a little alcohol can cause serious liver damage
2. harmful alcohol can reach an unborn baby through the placenta
3. alcoholic drinks tend to speed up your reactions
4. alcohol is rapidly absorbed into your bloodstream from the stomach
Which of the following is NOT true about drinking alcoholic beverages?
1. too much alcohol can cause serious liver damage
2. harmful alcohol can reach an unborn baby through the placenta
3. alcoholic drinks tend to slow down your reactions
4. alcohol is only slowly absorbed into your bloodstream from the stomach
Which of the following is NOT true about smoking?
1. nicotine is not an addictive substance in tobacco tar or smoke
2. breathing in other smokers smoke can be harmful
3. smokers have harmful carbon monoxide in their bloodstream
4. tobacco tar and smoke both contain carcinogens
Which of the following is NOT true about smoking?
1. nicotine is an addictive substance in tobacco tar or smoke
2. breathing in other smokers smoke is not harmful
3. smokers have harmful carbon monoxide in their bloodstream
4. tobacco tar and smoke both contain carcinogens
Which of the following is NOT true about smoking?
1. nicotine is an addictive substance in tobacco tar or smoke
2. breathing in other smokers smoke can be harmful
3. smokers do not have harmful carbon monoxide in their bloodstream
4. tobacco tar and smoke both contain carcinogens
Which of the following is NOT true about smoking?
1. nicotine is an addictive substance in tobacco tar or smoke
2. breathing in other smokers smoke can be harmful
3. smokers have harmful carbon monoxide in their bloodstream
4. only tobacco tar. and not smoke, contain carcinogens
Which of the following is the largest in size
1. leaf cell
2. red blood cell
3. bacterium
4. virus
Which of the following is the smallest in size
1. leaf cell
2. red blood cell
3. bacterium
4. virus
Which structure in a cell produces ATP?
1. cell membrane
2. ribosomes
3. mitochondria
4. cytoplasm
5. nucleus
Which structure in a cell synthesises proteins?
1. cell membrane
2. ribosomes
3. mitochondria
4. cytoplasm
5. nucleus
In terms of the human body, which of the following is the smallest?
1. cell
2. tissue
3. organ
4. system
In terms of the human body, which of the following is the largest?
1. cell
2. tissue
3. organ
4. system
Which type of plant cell layer allows light through and a waxy cuticle to minimise water loss?
1. upper epidermal tissue
2. palisade mesophyll
3. spongy mesophyll
4. lower epidermal tissue with guard cells
Which type of plant cell layer has regular shaped cells containing chloroplasts?
1. upper epidermal tissue
2. palisade mesophyll
3. spongy mesophyll
4. lower epidermal tissue with guard cells
Which type of plant cell layer has irregular shaped cells with air spaces to allow gas diffusion?
1. upper epidermal tissue
2. palisade mesophyll
3. spongy mesophyll
4. lower epidermal tissue with guard cells
Which type of plant cell layer has many stomata and allows gas exchange on the leaf surface?
1. upper epidermal tissue
2. palisade mesophyll
3. spongy mesophyll
4. lower epidermal tissue with guard cells
Which of these did important early experiments on genetics using pea plants?
1. Gregor Mendel
2. Charles Darwin
3. Rosalind Franklin
4. Maurice Wilkins
5. Adolf Fick
Which of these scientists wrote a famous 19th century book on evolution?
1. Gregor Mendel
2. Charles Darwin
3. Alfred Russel Wallace
4. Maurice Wilkins
5. Adolf Fick
Which of these scientists, who never received the Nobel Prize, took some famous X-ray photographs of DNA crystals?
1. James Watson
2. Charles Darwin
3. Rosalind Franklin
4. Francis Crick
5. Adolf Fick
Which of these scientists received the Nobel Prize for work on the structure of DNA?
1. Louis Pasteur
2. Charles Darwin
3. Rosalind Franklin
4. Maurice Wilkins
5. Adolf Fick
Which of these scientists published important scientific papers on the mathematics of diffusion?
1. Gregor Mendel
2. James Watson
3. Rosalind Franklin
4. Maurice Wilkins
5. Adolf Fick
Which of these scientists won the Nobel prize for work on the structure of DNA?
1. Alfred Russel Wallace
2. Francis Crick
3. Rosalind Franklin
4. Robert Brown
5. Adolf Fick
Which of these scientists won the Nobel prize for work on the structure of DNA?
1. Alfred Russel Wallace
2. James Watson
3. Rosalind Franklin
4. Robert Brown
5. Adolf Fick
Which of these scientists formulated a theory of evolution similar to Darwin, based on work in the jungles of South America and Indonesia?
1. Alfred Russel Wallace
2. James Watson
3. Rosalind Franklin
4. Robert Brown
5. Adolf Fick
Which of these scientists was famous for discovering the principles of vaccination and microbial fermentation?
1. Alfred Russel Wallace
2. James Watson
3. Rosalind Franklin
4. Robert Brown
5. Louis Pasteur
Which of these scientists, early in the 19th century, reported the 'dance' of pollen grains suspended in water, when viewed under a microscope?
1. Alfred Russel Wallace
2. James Watson
3. Rosalind Franklin
4. Robert Brown
5. Louis Pasteur
Which of the following hormones is responsible for stimulating the adrenal glands to release cortisol?
1. ACTH
2. ADH
3. Adrenaline
4. Thyroxine
5. FSH
6. LH
Which of the following hormones is responsible for causing the kidneys to release less water producing less urine?
1. ACTH
2. ADH
3. Adrenaline
4. Thyroxine
5. FSH
6. LH
Which of the following hormones is responsible for causing air passages to dilate and increasing blood flow to the muscles of the heart and lungs?
1. ACTH
2. ADH
3. Adrenaline
4. Thyroxine
5. FSH
6. LH
Which of the following hormones released into the bloodstream that helps many functions of the body including metabolism?
1. ACTH
2. ADH
3. Adrenaline
4. Thyroxine
5. FSH
6. LH
Which of the following hormones helps control the menstrual cycle and stimulates the growth of eggs in the ovaries?
1. ACTH
2. ADH
3. Adrenaline
4. Thyroxine
5. FSH
6. LH
Which of the following hormones helps control the menstrual cycle and triggers the release of an egg from the ovary?
1. ACTH
2. ADH
3. Adrenaline
4. Thyroxine
5. FSH
6. LH
Which bone of the human skeleton is a breast bone?
1. sternum
2. humerus
3. carpals
4. femur
5. tibia
6. tarsal
Which bone of the human skeleton is in the upper arm?
1. sternum
2. humerus
3. carpals
4. femur
5. tibia
6. tarsal
Which bone of the human skeleton is part of the hand?
1. sternum
2. humerus
3. carpals
4. femur
5. tibia
6. tarsal
Which bone of the human skeleton is in the thigh?
1. sternum
2. humerus
3. carpals
4. femur
5. tibia
6. tarsal
Which bone of the human skeleton is the thickest lower leg bone?
1. sternum
2. humerus
3. carpals
4. femur
5. tibia
6. tarsal
Which bone of the human skeleton is part of the foot?
1. sternum
2. humerus
3. carpals
4. femur
5. tibia
6. tarsal
Which is the male part of a flower?
1. stamens
2. petals
3. carpels
4. sepals
Which part of the flower is designed to attract insects?
1. stamens
2. petals
3. carpels
4. sepals
Which are the female parts of a flower?
1. stamens
2. petals
3. carpels
4. sepals
Which parts of the flower are green and protect the flower in the bud?
1. stamens
2. petals
3. carpels
4. sepals
Food chain: algae => tadpole => perch => otter
Which of these is the producer?
1. algae
2. tadpole
3. perch
4. otter
Food chain: algae => tadpole => perch => otter
Which of these is the primary consumer?
1. algae
2. tadpole
3. perch
4. otter
Food chain: algae => tadpole => perch => otter
Which of these is the secondary consumer?
1. algae
2. tadpole
3. perch
4. otter
Food chain: algae => tadpole => perch => otter
Which of these is the tertiary consumer?
1. algae
2. tadpole
3. perch
4. otter
Food chain: fruit bush => greenfly => blue tit => sparrow hawk
Which of these is the producer?
1. fruit bush
2. greenfly
3. blue tit
4. sparrow hawk
Food chain: fruit bush => greenfly => blue tit => sparrow hawk
Which of these is the primary consumer?
1. fruit bush
2. greenfly
3. blue tit
4. sparrow hawk
Food chain: fruit bush => greenfly => blue tit => sparrow hawk
Which of these is the secondary consumer?
1. fruit bush
2. greenfly
3. blue tit
4. sparrow hawk
Food chain: fruit bush => greenfly => blue tit => sparrow hawk
Which of these is the tertiary consumer?
1. fruit bush
2. greenfly
3. blue tit
4. sparrow hawk
Food chain: grass => rabbit => fox => fleas
Which of these is the producer?
1. grass
2. rabbit
3. fox
4. fleas
Food chain: grass => rabbit => fox => fleas
Which of these is the primary consumer?
1. grass
2. rabbit
3. fox
4. fleas
Food chain: grass => rabbit => fox => fleas
Which of these is the secondary consumer?
1. grass
2. rabbit
3. fox
4. fleas
Food chain: grass => rabbit => fox => fleas
Which of these is the tertiary consumer?
1. grass
2. rabbit
3. fox
4. fleas
Food chain: plankton => herring => seal => eskimo
Which of these is the producer?
1. plankton
2. herring
3. seal
4. eskimo
Food chain: plankton => herring => seal => eskimo
Which of these is the primary consumer?
1. plankton
2. herring
3. seal
4. eskimo
Food chain: plankton => herring => seal => eskimo
Which of these is the secondary consumer?
1. plankton
2. herring
3. seal
4. eskimo
Food chain: plankton => herring => seal => eskimo
Which of these is the tertiary consumer?
1. plankton
2. herring
3. seal
4. eskimo
Which element of the periodic table is a Group 1 Alkali Metal?
1. sodium (Na)
2. magnesium (Mg)
3. chlorine (Cl)
4. xenon (Xe)
5. iron (Fe)
6. neodymium (Nd)
Which element of the periodic table is a Group 2 Alkaline Earth Metal?
1. sodium (Na)
2. magnesium (Mg)
3. chlorine (Cl)
4. xenon (Xe)
5. iron (Fe)
6. neodymium (Nd)
Which element of the periodic table is a Group 7 (17) Halogen?
1. sodium (Na)
2. magnesium (Mg)
3. chlorine (Cl)
4. xenon (Xe)
5. iron (Fe)
6. neodymium (Nd)
Which element of the periodic table is a Group 0 (8, 18) Noble Gas?
1. sodium (Na)
2. magnesium (Mg)
3. chlorine (Cl)
4. xenon (Xe)
5. iron (Fe)
6. neodymium (Nd)
Which element of the periodic table is a Transition Metal?
1. sodium (Na)
2. magnesium (Mg)
3. chlorine (Cl)
4. xenon (Xe)
5. iron (Fe)
6. neodymium (Nd)
Which element of the periodic table is a Rare Earth Metal?
1. sodium (Na)
2. magnesium (Mg)
3. chlorine (Cl)
4. xenon (Xe)
5. iron (Fe)
6. neodymium (Nd)
Which of the following terms means the state change of liquid to gas?
1. boiling
2. freezing
3. melting
4. condensing
5. sublimation
Which of the following terms means the state change of liquid to solid?
1. boiling
2. freezing
3. melting
4. condensing
5. sublimation
Which of the following terms means the state change of solid to liquid?
1. boiling
2. freezing
3. melting
4. condensing
5. sublimation
Which of the following terms means the state change of gas to liquid?
1. boiling
2. freezing
3. melting
4. condensing
5. sublimation
Which of the following terms means the state change of solid to gas?
1. boiling
2. freezing
3. melting
4. condensing
5. sublimation
Which of the following terms means the state change of liquid to gas?
1. vaporisation
2. freezing
3. melting
4. condensing
5. sublimation
Which of the following terms means the state change of liquid to gas?
1. sublimation
2. freezing
3. melting
4. condensing
5. evaporation
What danger does this hazard warning sign indicate?
1. oxidant
2. harmful
3. corrosive
4. flammable
5. toxic
6. explosive
What danger does this hazard warning sign indicate?
1. oxidant
2. harmful
3. corrosive
4. flammable
5. toxic
6. biohazard
What danger does this hazard warning sign indicate?
1. oxidant
2. irritant
3. corrosive
4. flammable
5. toxic
6. biohazard
What danger does this hazard warning sign indicate?
1. oxidant
2. irritant
3. corrosive
4. flammable
5. toxic
6. biohazard
What danger does this hazard warning sign indicate?
1. oxidant
2. irritant
3. corrosive
4. flammable
5. toxic
6. explosive
What danger does this hazard warning sign indicate?
1. oxidant
2. irritant
3. corrosive
4. radioactive
5. toxic
6. explosive
What danger does this hazard warning sign indicate?
1. oxidant
2. biohazard
3. corrosive
4. radioactive
5. toxic
6. explosive
What danger does this hazard warning sign indicate?
1. explosive
2. biohazard
3. corrosive
4. radioactive
5. toxic
6. flammable
What danger does this hazard warning sign indicate?
1. explosive
2. biohazard
3. corrosive
4. radioactive
5. toxic
6. oxidant
Which word means 'a substance that dissolves in a liquid'?
1. solute
2. solvent
3. solution
4. suspension
Which word means 'a liquid that dissolves substances'?
1. solute
2. solvent
3. solution
4. suspension
Which word means 'a liquid that contains a dissolved substance'?
1. solute
2. solvent
3. solution
4. suspension
Which word means 'a mixture of a liquid and solid that looks cloudy'?
1. solute
2. solvent
3. solution
4. suspension
Which element used in roofing corrodes to form a brown oxide compound?
1. iron (Fe)
2. copper (Cu)
3. lead (Pb)
4. silver (Ag)
Which element used in roofing corrodes to form a green basic carbonate compound?
1. iron (Fe)
2. copper (Cu)
3. lead (Pb)
4. silver (Ag)
Which element used in roofing corrodes to form a white oxide compound?
1. iron (Fe)
2. copper (Cu)
3. lead (Pb)
4. silver (Ag)
Which element used in cutlery corrodes to give a yellow => brown => black sulfide compound? (with less air pollution these days, not as evident as it was!)
1. iron (Fe)
2. copper (Cu)
3. lead (Pb)
4. silver (Ag)
Which of the following is a sedimentary rock?
1. sandstone
2. slate
3. marble
4. granite
5. basalt
Which of the following is a sedimentary rock?
1. pumice
2. shale
3. obsidian
4. schist
5. gneiss
Which of the following is a sedimentary rock from which oil is extracted?
1. sandstone
2. shale
3. slate
4. schist
5. limestone
Which of the following is a sedimentary rock?
1. slate
2. marble
3. limestone
4. pumice
5. obsidian
Which of the following is a sedimentary rock?
1. gneiss
2. granite
3. basalt
4. mudstone
5. marble
Which of the following is a metamorphic rock?
1. slate
2. sandstone
3. shale
4. pumice
5. basalt
Which of the following is a metamorphic rock?
1. mudstone
2. marble
3. sandstone
4. granite
5. basalt
Which of the following is a metamorphic rock?
1. shale
2. limestone
3. schist
4. pumice
5. granite
Which of the following is a metamorphic rock?
1. limestone
2. mudstone
3. basalt
4. gneiss
5. granite
Which of the following is an igneous rock?
1. granite
2. limestone
3. sandstone
4. marble
5. slate
Which of the following is an igneous rock?
1. shale
2. basalt
3. sandstone
4. slate
5. marble
Which of the following is an igneous rock?
1. mudstone
2. limestone
3. pumice
4. schist
5. marble
Which of the following is an igneous rock?
1. slate
2. limestone
3. sandstone
4. obsidian
5. marble
Sulfuric acid is a strong acid used in car batteries, what might the pH of battery acid be?
1. pH 1
2. pH 3
3. pH 7
4. pH 11
5. pH 13
Vinegar is a solution containing the weak organic acid ethanoic acid (acetic acid). What might the pH of vinegar be?
1. pH 1
2. pH 3
3. pH 7
4. pH 11
5. pH 13
Sodium chloride is the main ingredient in cooking salt. When dissolved in water, what might the pH of the solution be?
1. pH 1
2. pH 3
3. pH 7
4. pH 11
5. pH 13
Ammonia is a weak alkali used in oven cleaning fluids. What might the pH of this household cleaning fluid be?
1. pH 1
2. pH 3
3. pH 7
4. pH 11
5. pH 13
Sodium hydroxide (caustic soda) is a strong alkali used in drain cleaning fluids. What might the pH of this cleaning fluid be?
1. pH 1
2. pH 3
3. pH 7
4. pH 11
5. pH 13
Which word means 'it will dissolve in a liquid'?
1. solute
2. solvent
3. solution
4. soluble
Which of these elements is a pale yellow gas?
1. fluorine (F)
2. chlorine (Cl)
3. bromine (Br)
4. iodine (I)
5. astatine (At)
Which of these elements is a green gas?
1. fluorine (F)
2. chlorine (Cl)
3. bromine (Br)
4. iodine (I)
5. astatine (At)
Which of these elements is a dark reddish brown liquid giving off a orange-brown vapour
1. fluorine (F)
2. chlorine (Cl)
3. bromine (Br)
4. iodine (I)
5. astatine (At)
Which of these elements is a dark solid giving a purple vapour on heating?
1. fluorine (F)
2. chlorine (Cl)
3. bromine (Br)
4. iodine (I)
5. astatine (At)
Which of these elements is a dark radioactive solid?
1. fluorine (F)
2. chlorine (Cl)
3. bromine (Br)
4. iodine (I)
5. astatine (At)
Which is the strongest alkali?
1. bleach
2. toothpaste
3. vinegar
4. wine
Which is the weakest alkali?
1. bleach
2. toothpaste
3. vinegar
4. wine
Which is the strongest acid?
1. bleach
2. toothpaste
3. vinegar
4. wine
Which is the weakest alkali?
1. bleach
2. calamine lotion
3. vinegar
4. wine
Which substance is added to soil to reduce the acidity and increase pH
1. sodium hydroxide
2. calcium oxide
3. NPK fertiliser
4. charcoal
Which of the following 'fizzes' when acid added to it?
1. cooking salt
2. potato crisps
3. bicarbonate of soda
4. household ammonia
Which gas, formed in fossil fuel combustion, is acidic and irritating to the lungs and eyes?
1. nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
2. ammonia (NH₃)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. carbon monoxide (CO)
5. methane (CH₄)
Which gas is produced by photosynthesis?
1. methane (CH₄)
2. oxygen (O₂)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. carbon monoxide (CO)
5. hydrogen (H₂)
Which gas is relights a glowing splint?
1. nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
2. oxygen (O₂)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. carbon monoxide (CO)
5. hydrogen (H₂)
Which gas is formed when acids react with carbonates?
1. nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
2. oxygen (O₂)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. carbon monoxide (CO)
5. hydrogen (H₂)
Which gas is the main product formed on the complete combustion of a hydrocarbon fuel?
1. nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
2. oxygen (O₂)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. carbon monoxide (CO)
5. sulfur dioxide (SO₂)
Which gas is formed with incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon fuel?
1. nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
2. oxygen (O₂)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. carbon monoxide (CO)
5. hydrogen (H₂)
Which gas is highly toxic and combines with haemoglobin in red blood cells?
1. nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
2. oxygen (O₂)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. carbon monoxide (CO)
5. methane (CH₄)
Which gas is most likely formed by the reaction between dilute acids and metals?
1. sulfur dioxide (SO₂)
2. ammonia (NH₃)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. hydrogen (H₂)
5. carbon monoxide (CO)
Which gas gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint?
1. nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
2. ammonia (NH₃)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. hydrogen (H₂)
5. carbon monoxide (CO)
Which gas is used in the Haber synthesis of ammonia to make fertilisers?
1. nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
2. sulfur dioxide (SO₂)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. hydrogen (H₂)
5. carbon monoxide (CO)
Which gas is used in the Haber synthesis of ammonia to make fertilisers?
1. nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
2. sulfur dioxide (SO₂)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. nitrogen (N₂)
5. carbon monoxide (CO)
Which is the only alkaline gas listed?
1. nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
2. ammonia (NH₃)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. methane (CH₄)
5. carbon monoxide (CO)
Which is an alkaline gas, soluble in water, and neutralised by acids to form salts?
1. nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
2. ammonia (NH₃)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. nitrogen (N₂)
5. methane (CH₄)
Which is the only gas to turn red litmus paper blue?
1. methane (CH₄)
2. ammonia (NH₃)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. nitrogen (N₂)
5. sulfur dioxide (SO₂)
Which gas is the main combustible component in liquified natural gas?
1. hexane (C₆H₁₄)
2. ammonia (NH₃)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. methane (CH₄)
5. carbon monoxide (CO)
Which gas is most likely to be formed by the anaerobic decomposition of organic waste?
1. sulfur dioxide (SO₂)
2. ammonia (NH₃)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. methane (CH₄)
5. carbon monoxide (CO)
Which gas is the strongest infrared absorbing 'greenhouse' gas?
1. carbon monoxide (CO)
2. hydrogen (H₂)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. methane (CH₄)
5. carbon monoxide (CO)
Which strongly acidic polluting gas is formed in the combustion of fossil fuels?
1. sulfur dioxide (SO₂)
2. ammonia (NH₃)
3. carbon dioxide (CO₂)
4. methane (CH₄)
5. carbon monoxide (CO)
What in general is formed when a dilute acid reacts with a metal?
1. salt + hydrogen
2. salt + water
3. salt + water + carbon dioxide
4. salt + carbon dioxide
What in general is formed when a dilute acid reacts with an oxide?
1. salt + hydrogen
2. salt + water
3. salt + water + carbon dioxide
4. salt + carbon dioxide
What in general is formed when a dilute acid reacts with a carbonate?
1. salt + hydrogen
2. salt + water
3. salt + water + carbon dioxide
4. salt + carbon dioxide
Which of the following describes a test for carbon dioxide?
1. The gas is bubbled into limewater.
2. A glowing wooden splint is placed in the gas.
3. A lit wooden splint is placed in the gas.
4. Damp red litmus is placed in the gas
Which of the following describes a test for oxygen?
1. The gas is bubbled into limewater.
2. A glowing wooden splint is placed in the gas.
3. A lit wooden splint is placed in the gas.
4. Damp red litmus is placed in the gas
Which of the following describes a test for hydrogen?
1. The gas is bubbled into limewater.
2. A glowing wooden splint is placed in the gas.
3. A lit wooden splint is placed in the gas.
4. Damp red litmus is placed in the gas
Which of the following describes a test for ammonia?
1. The gas is bubbled into limewater.
2. A glowing wooden splint is placed in the gas.
3. A lit wooden splint is placed in the gas.
4. Damp red litmus is placed in the gas
Which word describes the process of a solid directly changing to a gas/vapour on heating?
1. melting
2. boiling
3. evaporation
4. sublimation
This particle model picture represents a?
1. pure gas
2. liquid
3. mixture of gases
4. partly melted solid
This particle model picture represents a?
1. liquid mixture
2. pure liquid
3. solution
4. partly melted solid
This particle model picture represents a?
1. pure gas
2. liquid mixture or solution
3. solid
4. partly melted solid
This particle model picture represents a ?
1. pure gas
2. pure liquid
3. solid mixture or alloy
4. partly melted solid
This particle model picture represents a?
1. a liquid mixture
2. a partly condensed gas
3. a solid mixture
4. partly melted solid mixture
This particle model picture represents a ?
1. pure liquid
2. concentrated solution
3. solid mixture
4. pure solid
Which of these is an element?
1. Cu
2. CO
3. MgO
4. FeS
Which of these is a compound?
1. Cu
2. CO
3. Co
4. Sc
Which of these is an element?
1. SrS
2. BeO
3. No
4. MgS
Which of these is a compound?
1. Cs
2. Sc
3. Co
4. CO
This particle model represents a?
1. mixture of two compound molecules
2. molecules of a pure element
3. a mixture of molecules of two elements
4. a mixture of molecules of two elements and molecules of a compound
This particle model represents a?
1. mixture of two compound molecules
2. molecules of a pure element
3. a mixture of molecules of two elements
4. a mixture of molecules of two elements and molecules of a compound
This particle model represents a?
1. mixture of two compound molecules
2. molecules of a pure element
3. a mixture of molecules of two elements
4. a mixture of molecules of two elements and molecules of a compound
This particle model represents a?
1. mixture of two compound molecules
2. molecules of a pure element
3. a mixture of molecules of two elements
4. a mixture of molecules of two elements and molecules of a compound
When copper is heated in a bunsen flame it forms a black solid called?
1. copper oxide
2. copper hydroxide
3. copper carbide
4. copper nitride
The formula for sulfuric acid is H₂SO₄. What is the ratio of H : S : O atoms in the molecule?
1. 1 : 2 : 4
2. 2 : 1 : 4
3. 2 : 4 : 4
4. 2 : 2 : 4
The formula for calcium carbonate is CaCO₃. What is the ratio of Ca : C : O atoms in the formula?
1. 1 : 3 : 3
2. 1 : 1 : 3
3. 3 : 3 : 1
4. 3 : 1 : 1
The formula of ammonium sulfate is (NH₄)₂SO₄. What is the ratio of N : H : S : O atoms in the molecule?
1. 1 : 4 : 2 : 4
2. 2 : 4 : 2 : 8
3. 2 : 8 : 1 : 4
4. 1 : 8 : 1 : 8
The formula of calcium hydroxide is Ca(OH)₂. What is the ratio of Ca : O : H atoms in the formula?
1. 2 : 2 : 2
2. 2 : 2 : 1
3. 2 : 1 : 2
4. 1 : 2 : 2
At room temperature which of the following elements is a dull yellow solid?
1. sulfur (S)
2. gold (Au)
3. phosphorus (P)
4. boron (B)
At room temperature which of the following element is a silvery liquid?
1. caesium (Cs)
2. mercury (Hg)
3. selenium (Se)
4. boron (B)
At room temperature which of the following element is dark reddish-brown liquid?
1. phosphorus (P)
2. mercury (Hg)
3. bromine (Br)
4. boron (B)
At room temperature which of the following element is a silvery solid?
1. boron (B)
2. mercury (Hg)
3. gold (Au)
4. scandium (Sc)
Which is generally NOT true about comparing the properties of metallic and non-metallic elements?
1. Metals usually have lowish melting and boiling points and are brittle solids.
2. Metals are usually good thermal and electrical conductors with relatively high density.
3. Non-metals usually have low melting and boiling points and are poor thermal and electrical conductors.
4. Non-metals are usually physically weak e.g. if solid - brittle, dull coloured or soft, with lowish densities.
Which is generally NOT true about comparing the properties of metallic and non-metallic elements?
1. Metals usually have high melting and boiling points and strong shiny solids.
2. Metals are usually poor thermal and electrical conductors with relatively low density.
3. Non-metals usually have low melting and boiling points and are poor thermal and electrical conductors.
4. Non-metals are usually physically weak e.g. if solid - brittle, dull coloured or soft, with lowish densities.
Which is generally NOT true about comparing the properties of metallic and non-metallic elements?
1. Metals usually have high melting and boiling points and strong shiny solids.
2. Metals are usually good thermal and electrical conductors with relatively high density.
3. Non-metals usually have high melting and boiling points and are good thermal and electrical conductors.
4. Non-metals are usually physically weak e.g. if solid - brittle, dull coloured or soft, with lowish densities.
Which is generally NOT true about comparing the properties of metallic and non-metallic elements?
1. Metals usually have high melting and boiling points and strong shiny solids.
2. Metals are usually good thermal and electrical conductors with relatively high density.
3. Non-metals usually have low melting and boiling points and are poor thermal and electrical conductors.
4. Non-metals are usually physically strong with high densities.
Which word matches the phrase "the smallest possible particle of ordinary matter that makes up all materials"?
1. atom
2. element
3. compound
4. mixture
Which word matches the phrase "a particular type of atom which cannot be split into simpler substances"?
1. molecule
2. element
3. compound
4. mixture
Which word matches the phrase "two or more different types of atom chemically combined together"?
1. atom
2. element
3. compound
4. mixture
Which word matches the phrase "two or more substances that are not chemically combined together"?
1. atom
2. element
3. compound
4. mixture
Which method of separation is best to use for separating petrol from crude oil
1. distillation
2. evaporation
3. filtration
4. chromatography
Which method of separation is best to use for obtaining salt from seawater?
1. distillation
2. evaporation
3. filtration
4. chromatography
Which method of separation is best to use for removing silt from muddy water?
1. distillation
2. evaporation
3. filtration
4. chromatography
Which method of separation is best to use for investigating the composition of food dyes in sweet colours
1. distillation
2. evaporation
3. filtration
4. chromatography
Which sequence most closely describes process E?
1. burial, melting, cooling
2. may involve burial first, heat and/or pressure, recrystallisation without melting
3. weathering, erosion, transportation, deposition, burial, pressure, cementation
4. weathering, erosion, burial, melting, cooling
Which sequence most closely describes process H?
1. burial, melting, cooling
2. may involve burial first, heat and/or pressure, recrystallisation without melting
3. weathering, erosion, transportation, deposition, burial, pressure, cementation
4. weathering, erosion, burial, melting, cooling
Which sequence most closely describes process K?
1. burial, melting, cooling
2. may involve burial first, heat and/or pressure, recrystallisation without melting
3. weathering, erosion, transportation, deposition, burial, pressure, cementation
4. burial, pressure, cementation, recrystallisation
The preparation of copper sulfate from copper oxide and sulfuric acid. Which word applies to stages 1 and 2?
1. dissolving
2. filtration
3. evaporation
4. crystallisation
The preparation of copper sulfate from copper oxide and sulfuric acid. Which word applies to stage 3?
1. dissolving
2. filtration
3. evaporation
4. crystallisation
The preparation of copper sulfate from copper oxide and sulfuric acid. Which word applies to go from stages 3 to stage 4?
1. dissolving
2. filtration
3. evaporation
4. crystallisation
The preparation of copper sulfate from copper oxide and sulfuric acid. Which word applies to stage 4?
1. dissolving
2. filtration
3. evaporation
4. crystallisation
Which element is a non-metal, but in one form is quite a good electrical conductor?
1. carbon
2. lithium
3. bismuth
4. sulfur
Which element is used in batteries for electric cars?
1. carbon
2. lithium
3. bismuth
4. sulfur
Which element is used to protect steel cans from corrosion?
1. carbon
2. lithium
3. tin
4. sulfur
Which element is usually found not chemically combined with other elements?
1. aluminium
2. lithium
3. copper
4. gold
What must be always present for iron to rust?
1. oxygen only
2. water only
3. salty water
4. oxygen and water
Which of the following describes rust?
1. hydrated iron carbonate
2. hydrated iron sulfate
3. hydrated iron oxide
4. hydrated iron nitrate
Which metal reacts the most rapidly with water
1. potassium
2. calcium
3. magnesium
4. copper
Which metal reacts slowly with water to create a few bubbles on the surface?
1. sodium
2. magnesium
3. zinc
4. copper
Which metal shows little reaction with cold water
1. sodium
2. calcium
3. copper
4. potassium
Which metal reacts the most rapidly with acids?
1. zinc
2. iron
3. copper
4. magnesium
Which is TRUE about lithium, sodium and potassium, known as the Alkali Metals?
1. they have unusually low densities
2. they have unusually high melting points
3. they are typical hard metals
4. they are poor conductors of heat
Which is TRUE about lithium, sodium and potassium, known as the Alkali Metals?
1. they have unusually high densities
2. they have unusually low melting points
3. they are typical hard metals
4. they are poor conductors of electricity
Which is TRUE about lithium, sodium and potassium, known as the Alkali Metals?
1. they have unusually high densities
2. they have unusually high boiling points
3. they are unusually soft metals
4. they are poor conductors of heat
Which is TRUE about lithium, sodium and potassium, known as the Alkali Metals?
1. they have unusually high densities
2. they have unusually high boiling points
3. they are typical hard metals
4. they are good conductors of heat
Which is TRUE about lithium, sodium and potassium, known as the Alkali Metals?
1. when pure they are silver solids
2. they have untypically low boiling points
3. they are untypical hard metals
4. they are poor conductors of electricity because they have no mobile electrons
Which is TRUE about lithium, sodium and potassium, known as the Alkali Metals?
1. when pure they are colourless solids
2. they have untypically low boiling points
3. they are kept under oil because of their reactivity towards water or oxygen
4. they are poor conductors of electricity because they have no mobile electrons
What is formed when sodium is burned in air?
1. a low melting white carbonate
2. a low melting black carbonate
3. a white high melting oxide
4. a black high melting oxide
What is formed when copper is strongly heated in air?
1. a low melting white carbonate
2. a low melting black carbonate
3. a white high melting oxide
4. a black high melting oxide
Which is TRUE about the reaction of sodium and water containing universal indicator?
1. the products are sodium hydroxide and hydrogen
2. the reaction is fast and endothermic
3. the indicator turns from neutral green (pH 7) to strongly acid red (pH 1)
4. the gas formed causes a glowing splint to re-ignite
Which is TRUE about the reaction of potassium and water containing universal indicator?
1. the products are potassium oxide and hydrogen
2. the reaction is fast and exothermic
3. the indicator turns from acid red (pH 3) to neutral green (pH 7)
4. the metal sinks but carries on reacting
Which is TRUE about the reaction of lithium and water containing universal indicator?
1. the products are lithium oxide and hydrogen
2. the reaction is slow and endothermic
3. the indicator turns from neutral green (pH 7) to strongly alkaline purple (pH 14)
4. the metal sinks but carries on reacting
Which is TRUE about the reaction of sodium and water containing universal indicator?
1. the products are sodium oxide and hydrogen
2. the reaction is fast and endothermic
3. the indicator turns from neutral green (pH 7) to weakly alkaline dark green (pH 8)
4. the gas formed gives a pop with a lit splint
Which metal is less reactive than copper towards water or acids?
1. gold (Au)
2. sodium (Na)
3. iron (Fe)
4. aluminium (Al)
Which metal is more reactive than magnesium with water or acids?
1. gold (Au)
2. sodium (Na)
3. iron (Fe)
4. aluminium (Al)
Which is the least reactive metal with water or acids?
1. zinc (Zn)
2. sodium (Na)
3. iron (Fe)
4. aluminium (Al)
Which metal corrodes to give a protective oxide layer?
1. copper (Cu)
2. sodium (Na)
3. iron (Fe)
4. aluminium (Al)
Which of these reactions is possible?
1. Zn + CuO ==> ZnO + Cu
2. Pb + ZnCl₂ ==> PbCl₂ + Zn
3. Cu + FeSO₄ ==> CuSO₄ + Fe
4. Au + 2HCl ==> AuCl₂ + H₂
Which of these reactions is possible?
1. PbO + Cu ==> CuO + Pb
2. Zn + PbCl₂ ==> ZnCl₂ + Pb
3. Cu + FeSO₄ ==> CuSO₄ + Fe
4. Pt + 2HCl ==> PtCl₂ + H₂
Which of these reactions is possible?
1. SnO + Cu ==> CuO + Sn
2. Pb + SnCl₂ ==> PbCl₂ + Sn
3. Fe + CuSO₄ ==> FeSO₄ + Cu
4. Cu + H₂SO₄ ==> CuSO₄ + H₂
Which of these reactions is possible?
1. PbO + Pt ==> PtO + Pb
2. Pb + SnCl₂ ==> PbCl₂ + Sn
3. Pt + CuSO₄ ==> PtSO₄ + Cu
4. Sn + H₂SO₄ ==> SnSO₄ + H₂
Which rock is likely to be eroded the fastest by polluting acid rain?
1. limestone
2. marble
3. granite
4. sandstone
Which rock is likely to be eroded the slowest by polluting acid rain?
1. limestone
2. marble
3. granite
4. sandstone
Which rock is likely to be eroded the slowest by polluting acid rain?
1. limestone
2. marble
3. slate
4. sandstone
Which rock is likely to be eroded the fastest by polluting acid rain?
1. slate
2. marble
3. granite
4. basalt
A simple battery (cell) can be made by dipping two different strips of metal into a conducting salt solution of ions. Which two metals are most likely to produce the largest voltage?
1. magnesium and silver
2. zinc and iron
3. magnesium and zinc
4. zinc and tin
A simple battery (cell) can be made by dipping two different strips of metal into a conducting salt solution of ions. Which two metals are most likely to produce the smallest voltage? [9h-6]
1. magnesium and silver
2. zinc and iron
3. magnesium and zinc
4. zinc and tin
A simple battery (cell) can be made by dipping two different strips of metal into a conducting salt solution of ions. Which two metals are most likely to produce the biggest voltage?
1. zinc and copper
2. zinc and tin
3. magnesium and copper
4. tin and lead
A simple battery (cell) can be made by dipping two different strips of metal into a conducting salt solution of ions. Which two metals are most likely to produce the smallest voltage?
1. zinc and copper
2. zinc and tin
3. magnesium and copper
4. tin and lead
Which substance is found in petrol?
1. C
2. C₈H₁₈
3. CO
4. H₂
Which substance is most likely to form in the incomplete (inefficient) burning of a fuel?
1. CO₂
2. C₈H₁₈
3. CO
4. H₂
Which substance could be a fuel of the future?
1. C
2. C₈H₁₈
3. CO
4. H₂
Which substance is a product of the complete combustion of a fuel?
1. C
2. C₈H₁₈
3. CO
4. H₂O
Which chemical change corresponds to a 'neutralisation reaction'?
1. sodium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid ==> sodium chloride + water
2. methane + oxygen ==> carbon dioxide + water
3. zinc + copper sulfate ==> zinc sulphate + copper
4. calcium carbonate ==> calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
Which of these chemical changes corresponds to a 'fuel combustion' reaction?
1. sodium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid ==> sodium chloride + water
2. methane + oxygen ==> carbon dioxide + water
3. zinc + copper sulfate ==> zinc sulphate + copper
4. calcium carbonate ==> calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
Which of these chemical changes corresponds to a 'displacement reaction'?
1. sodium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid ==> sodium chloride + water
2. methane + oxygen ==> carbon dioxide + water
3. zinc + copper sulfate ==> zinc sulphate + copper
4. calcium carbonate ==> calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
Which of these chemical changes corresponds to a 'decomposition reaction'?
1. sodium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid ==> sodium chloride + water
2. methane + oxygen ==> carbon dioxide + water
3. zinc + copper sulfate ==> zinc sulphate + copper
4. calcium carbonate ==> calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
In a measured (quantitative) experiment, burning 2.4g of magnesium produced 4.0g of white magnesium oxide powder (MgO). What mass of oxygen combined with the magnesium?
1. 1.6 g
2. 2.4 g
3. 3.2 g
4. 6.4 g
In a measured (quantitative) experiment, burning 2.4g of magnesium produced 4.0g of white magnesium oxide powder (MgO). What mass of magnesium oxide might you expect if 3.6g of magnesium was burned?
1. 2.4 g
2. 6.0 g
3. 7.2 g
4. 6.4 g
CaCO₃ ==> CaO + CO₂
If 100g of calcium carbonate is decomposed to give a residue of 56g of calcium oxide, what is the mass of the carbon dioxide formed
1. 0 g
2. 56 g
3. 44 g
4. 54 g
What is the formula of ammonia?
1. NH₃
2. NH₂
3. NH₄
4. NH
What is the formula of methane?
1. C₂H₆
2. CH
3. CH₄
4. CH₃
What is the formula of sulfuric acid?
1. H₂SO₃
2. H₂SO₄
3. HSO₄
4. HSO₃
What is the formula of iron(III) oxide?
1. FeO₃
2. FeO
3. Fe₃O
4. Fe₂O₃
What is the formula of sodium hydroxide?
1. SOH
2. NaOH
3. S(OH)₂
4. Na(OH)₂
What is the formula of calcium carbonate?
1. CaCO₃
2. CaC₃
3. CaCO₂
4. Ca₂2CO₂
What is the formula of copper(II) sulfate?
1. CuSO₃
2. Cu(SO₄)₂
3. CuSO₄
4. CuSO₂
What is the formula of potassium sulfate?
1. K₂S
2. KSO₃
3. K₂SO₄
4. KSO₃
What is the name of the compound H₂SO₄?
1. sulfurous acid
2. sulfuric acid
3. hydrogen sulfate
4. hydrogen sulfite
Which is a correct name of the compound BaCl₂?
1. barium dichloride
2. barium carbide
3. barium chloride
4. boron dichloride
Which is a correct name of the compound Na₂CO₃?
1. sodium carbon trioxide
2. soda carbonate
3. sodium carbonate
4. disodium carbonate
Which is a correct name of the compound of formula KBr?
1. potassium bromide
2. krypton bromide
3. potassium bromine
4. krypton bromine
Which is a correct name of the compound of formula CuCl₂?
1. carbon dichloride
2. copper(II) carbide
3. copper(II) chloride
4. carbon dichloride
Which is a correct name of the compound KNO₃?
1. potassium carbonate
2. potassium nitride
3. potassium nitrite
4. potassium nitrate
In the electrolysis of moderately concentrated sodium chloride solution (brine) using carbon/platinum electrodes, the principal product formed at the positive anode is?
1. chlorine
2. hydrogen
3. oxygen
4. sodium
In the electrolysis of moderately concentrated sodium chloride solution (brine) using carbon/platinum electrodes, the principal product formed at the negative cathode is?
1. chlorine
2. hydrogen
3. oxygen
4. sodium
When copper(II) sulfate solution undergoes electrolysis using inert carbon or platinum electrodes the product at the positive anode is?
1. sulfur
2. hydrogen
3. oxygen
4. copper
When copper(II) sulfate solution undergoes electrolysis using inert carbon or platinum electrodes the product at the negative cathode is?
1. sulfur
2. hydrogen
3. oxygen
4. copper
In the electrolysis of water acidified with sulfuric acid, using inert carbon or platinum electrodes, what product is formed on the surface of the negative cathode?
1. sulfur
2. sulfur dioxide
3. hydrogen
4. oxygen
In the electrolysis of water acidified with sulfuric acid, using inert carbon or platinum electrodes, what product is formed on the surface of the positive anode?
1. sulfur
2. sulfur dioxide
3. hydrogen
4. oxygen
Which of the following reactions is likely to be the most exothermic?
1. CH_4(g) + 2O_2(g) ==> CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)
2. NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) ==> NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
3. CaCO_3(s) ==> CaO_(s) + CO_2(g)
4. C₆H₁₂O_6(aq) ==> 2C₂H₅OH_(aq) + 2CO_2(g)
Which of the following reactions is likely to be endothermic?
1. CH_4(g) + 2O_2(g) ==> CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)
2. NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) ==> NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
3. CaCO_3(s) ==> CaO_(s) + CO_2(g)
4. C₆H₁₂O_6(aq) ==> 2C₂H₅OH_(aq) + 2CO_2(g)
Which of the following reactions is a neutralisation?
1. CH_4(g) + 2O_2(g) ==> CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)
2. NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) ==> NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
3. CaCO_3(s) ==> CaO_(s) + CO_2(g)
4. C₆H₁₂O_6(aq) ==> 2C₂H₅OH_(aq) + 2CO_2(g)
Which of the following reactions produces a biofuel?
1. CH_4(g) + 2O_2(g) ==> CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)
2. NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) ==> NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
3. C₆H_14(g) ==> C₂H_4(g) + C₄H_10(g)
4. C₆H₁₂O_6(aq) ==> 2C₂H₅OH_(aq) + 2CO_2(g)
Which of the following reactions is a displacement?
1. magnesium + copper sulphate ==> copper + magnesium sulphate
2. hexane ==> ethene + butane
3. nitrogen + hydrogen ==> ammonia
4. methane + oxygen ==> carbon dioxide + water
Which of the following reactions is a 'cracking' reaction?
1. magnesium + copper sulphate ==> copper + magnesium sulphate
2. hexane ==> ethene + butane
3. nitrogen + hydrogen ==> ammonia
4. sodium sulphate + barium chloride ==> sodium chloride + barium sulphate
Which of the following reactions represents the Haber synthesis?
1. magnesium + copper sulphate ==> copper + magnesium sulphate
2. hexane ==> ethene + butane
3. nitrogen + hydrogen ==> ammonia
4. sodium sulphate + barium chloride ==> sodium chloride + barium sulphate
For the reaction: copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ==> copper + water
CuO + H₂ ===> Cu + H₂O... which of the following is 'reduced'?
1. copper(II) oxide
2. hydrogen
3. copper
4. water
For the reaction: copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ==> copper + water
CuO + H₂ ===> Cu + H₂O... which of the following is 'oxidised'?
1. copper(II) oxide
2. hydrogen
3. copper
4. water
For the reaction: copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ==> copper + water
CuO + H₂ ===> Cu + H₂O... which of the following is the 'reducing agent'?
1. copper(II) oxide
2. hydrogen
3. copper
4. water
For the reaction: copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ==> copper + water
CuO + H₂ ===> Cu + H₂O
... which of the following is the 'oxidising agent'?
1. copper(II) oxide
2. hydrogen
3. copper
4. water
For reactions to occur, the particles of the reactants must collide in a 'fruitful' collison. The fewer the collisions that take place, the slower the rate of a reaction. Which DECREASES the frequency of collisions between reactant particles?
1. For reactions involving gaseous reactants, decrease the pressure of the gases
2. For reactions involving solutions, raise the concentration of the solution
3. If a solid is reacting with a liquid, break the solid into smaller pieces
4. Raise the temperature of the reaction mixture
For reactions to occur, the particles of the reactants must collide in a fruitful collison. The fewer the collisions that take place, the slower the rate of reaction. Which DECREASES the frequency of collisions between reactant particles?
1. For reactions involving gaseous reactants, increase the pressure of the gases
2. For reactions involving solutions, decrease the concentration of the solution
3. If a solid is reacting with a liquid, break the solid into smaller pieces
4. Raise the temperature of the reaction mixture
For reactions to occur, the particles of the reactants must collide in a fruitful collison. The fewer the collisions that take place, the slower the rate of reaction. Which INCREASES the frequency of collisions between reactant particles?
1. For reactions involving gaseous reactants, decrease the pressure of the gases
2. For reactions involving solutions, decrease the concentration of the solution
3. If a solid is reacting with a liquid, break the solid into smaller pieces
4. Lower the temperature of the reaction mixture
For reactions to occur, the particles of the reactants must collide in a fruitful collison. The fewer the collisions that take place, the slower the rate of reaction. Which INCREASES the frequency of collisions between reactant particles?
1. For reactions involving gaseous reactants, decrease the pressure of the gases
2. For reactions involving solutions, decrease the concentration of the solution
3. If a solid is reacting with a liquid, use large pieces of the solid
4. Increase the temperature of the reaction mixture
Calcium carbonate in the form of limestone dissolves in hydrochloric acid and giving off carbon dioxide gas. Which conditions would produce the fastest reaction for the same quantity of limestone?
1. temperature of 40°C and 10cm³ of dilute acid
2. temperature of 20°C and 10cm³ of dilute acid
3. temperature of 40°C and 5cm³ of dilute acid and 5cm³ of water
4. temperature of 20°C and 5cm³ of dilute acid and 5cm³ of water
Calcium carbonate in the form of limestone dissolves in hydrochloric acid and giving off carbon dioxide gas. Which conditions would produce the slowest reaction for the same quantity of limestone?
1. temperature of 40°C and 10cm³ of dilute acid
2. temperature of 20°C and 10cm³ of dilute acid
3. temperature of 40°C and 5cm³ of dilute acid and 5cm³ of water
4. temperature of 20°C and 5cm³ of dilute acid and 5cm³ of water
Which of these metals can be used in the 'sacrificial corrosion' method for protecting steel structures from rusting?
1. copper
2. lead
3. magnesium
4. gold
Which of these metals can be used in the 'sacrificial corrosion' method for protecting steel structures from rusting?
1. copper
2. lead
3. zinc
4. silver
Which of these metals is coated on steel food cans to stop them corroding?
1. copper
2. lead
3. magnesium
4. tin
The displacement reaction of metal M with iron(II) sulfate can be written as:
M + FeSO₄ ===> MSO₄ + Fe
Which of the following metals is most likely to displace iron?
1. zinc
2. copper
3. silver
4. tin
The displacement reaction of metal M with iron(II) sulfate can be written as:
M + FeSO₄ ===> MSO₄ + Fe
Which of the following metals is least likely to displace iron?
1. zinc
2. copper
3. magnesium
4. calcium
Which statement is NOT true about the modern PERIODIC TABLE?
1. the elements are laid out in order of atomic number
2. elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in the outer shell
3. elements down a group use an increasing number of electron shells
4. from left to right, elements in the same period use an increasing number of electron shells
The atomic number of an element is?
1. the number of neutrons in the nucleus
2. the sum of the protons and neutrons in the nucleus
3. the number of protons in the nucleus
4. the number of electrons in the outer shell
The mass number of an element is?
1. the number of neutrons in the nucleus
2. the sum of the protons and neutrons in the nucleus
3. the number of protons in the nucleus
4. the number of electrons in the outer shell
The group number of an element can be?
1. the number of neutrons in the nucleus
2. the total number of electrons in the atom
3. the number of protons in the nucleus
4. the number of electrons in the outer shell
In which group or series will you find an element most likely to rapidly oxidise in air?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
In which group or series will you find an element that is a low melting point solid and a good conductor of heat and electricity?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
In which group or series will you find an element that rapidly reacts with water to give an alkaline solution?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 3
In which group or series will you find elements that have relatively low melting/boiling points and give a coloured gas when vapourised?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
In which group or series will you find elements that are relatively reactive non-metals?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
In which group or series will you find elements that readily formed ionic compounds with most metals?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
In which group or series will you find elements that are very unreactive?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
In which group or series will you find elements that have a full outer shell of electrons?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
In which group or series are you most likely to find elements and their compounds that act as catalysts?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
In which group or series will you find compounds of these elements with typically varied formulae and colours?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
In which group or series will you find the element potassium?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
In which group or series will you find the element iodine?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
In which group or series will you find the element krypton?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
In which group or series will you find the element nickel?
1. Group 1
2. Group 7
3. Group 0 (8)
4. Transition series
5. Group 2
Which atomic electron arrangement could be that of a very reactive metal?
1. 2.8.8.1
2. 2.8.8.2
3. 2.8.18.7
4. 2.8.18.8
Which atomic electron arrangement could be that of a very reactive non-metal?
1. 2.8.8.1
2. 2.8.8.2
3. 2.8.18.7
4. 2.8.18.8
Which atomic electron arrangement could be that of a very unreactive non-metal?
1. 2.8.8.1
2. 2.8.8.2
3. 2.8.18.7
4. 2.8.18.8
Which atomic electron arrangement could be that of an element in period 2 of the periodic table?
1. 2.3
2. 2.8.2
3. 2.8.8.6
4. 2.8.8.4
Which atomic electron arrangement could be that of an element in period 3 of the periodic table?
1. 2.8.8.3
2. 2.8.2
3. 2.3
4. 2.8.8.4
Which atomic electron arrangement could be that of an element in period 4 of the periodic table?
1. 2.2
2. 2.4
3. 2.8.4
4. 2.8.8.2
Which of these reactions is endothermic?
1. methane + oxygen ==> carbon dioxide + water
2. calcium carbonate ==> calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
3. hydrochloric acid + sodium hydroxide ==> sodium chloride + water
4. sodium + water ==> sodium hydroxide + hydrogen
Which of these reactions is NOT exothermic?
1. methane + oxygen ==> carbon dioxide + water
2. calcium carbonate ==> calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
3. hydrochloric acid + sodium hydroxide ==> sodium chloride + water
4. sodium + water ==> sodium hydroxide + hydrogen
Which of these numbers represents the overall energy change for the reaction?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Which of these numbers represents the activation energy for the reaction?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Which of these chemical equations is NOT balanced correctly?
1. Fe₃O₄ + 3CO ==> 3Fe + 3CO₂
2. 2Fe₂O₃ + 3C ==> 4Fe + 3CO₂
3. 2Al + 6HCl ==> 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂
4. C₃H₈ + 5O₂ ==> 3CO₂ + 4H₂O
Which of these chemical equations is NOT balanced correctly?
1. Fe₃O₄ + 4CO ==> 3Fe + 4CO₂
2. 2Fe₂O₃ + 2C ==> 4Fe + 2CO₂
3. 2Al + 6HCl ==> 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂
4. C₃H₈ + 5O₂ ==> 3CO₂ + 4H₂O
Which of these chemical equations is NOT balanced correctly?
1. Fe₃O₄ + 4CO ==> 3Fe + 4CO₂
2. 2Fe₂O₃ + 3C ==> 4Fe + 3CO₂
3. 2Al + 3HCl ==> AlCl₃ + 3H₂
4. C₃H₈ + 5O₂ ==> 3CO₂ + 4H₂O
Which of these chemical equations is NOT balanced correctly?
1. Fe₃O₄ + 4CO ==> 3Fe + 4CO₂
2. 2Fe₂O₃ + 3C ==> 4Fe + 3CO₂
3. 2Al + 6HCl ==> 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂
4. C₃H₈ + 4O₂ ==> 3CO₂ + 4H₂O
Which of the following statements about Group 1 Alkali Metals is NOT true?
1. down the group reactivity towards water decreases
2. an ionic compound is formed when they combine with oxygen
3. they are soft silvery grey solids
4. they are good conductors of heat and electricity
5. they form a singly charged positive ion
Which of the following statements about Group 1 Alkali Metals is NOT true?
1. down the group reactivity towards water increases
2. a covalent compound is formed when they combine with oxygen
3. they are soft silvery grey solids
4. they are good conductors of heat and electricity
5. they form a singly charged positive ion
Which of the following statements about Group 1 Alkali Metals is NOT true?
1. down the group reactivity towards water increases
2. an ionic compound is formed when they combine with oxygen
3. they are hard silvery grey solids
4. they are good conductors of heat and electricity
5. they form a singly charged positive ion
Which of the following statements about Group 1 Alkali Metals is NOT true?
1. down the group reactivity towards water increases
2. an ionic compound is formed when they combine with oxygen
3. they are soft silvery grey solids
4. the atomic radius decreases down the group
5. they form a singly charged positive ion
Which of the following statements about Group 1 Alkali Metals is NOT true?
1. down the group reactivity towards water increases
2. an ionic compound is formed when they combine with oxygen
3. they are soft silvery grey solids
4. they are good conductors of heat and electricity
5. they form a singly charged negative ion
Which of the following statements about the Group 0 (8) Noble Gases is NOT true?
1. they have an incomplete outer shell of electrons
2. they are the least reactive group of elements
3. the atomic radius increases down the group
4. the melting/boiling points increase down the group
5. the reactivity towards fluorine increases down the group
Which of the following statements about the Group 0 (8) Noble Gases is NOT true?
1. they have a full outer shell of electrons
2. they cannot react with any other elements
3. the atomic radius increases down the group
4. the melting/boiling points increase down the group
5. the reactivity towards fluorine increases down the group
Which of the following statements about the Group 0 (8) Noble Gases is NOT true?
1. they have a full outer shell of electrons
2. they are the least reactive group of elements
3. the atomic radius decreases down the group
4. the melting/boiling points increase down the group
5. the reactivity towards fluorine increases down the group
Which of the following statements about the Group 0 (8) Noble Gases is NOT true?
1. they have a full outer shell of electrons
2. they are the least reactive group of elements
3. the atomic radius increases down the group
4. the melting/boiling points decrease down the group
5. the reactivity towards fluorine increases down the group
Which of the following statements about the Group 0 (8) Noble Gases is NOT true?
1. they have a full outer shell of electrons
2. they are the least reactive group of elements
3. the atomic radius increases down the group
4. the melting/boiling points increase down the group
5. the reactivity towards fluorine decreases down the group
Which of the following statements about the Group 7 Halogens is NOT true?
1. the reactivity increases down the group
2. the melting/boiling points increase down the group
3. they all have 7 electrons in the outer shell
4. they can form a singly charged negative ion
5. they form ionic compounds when combined with group 1 metals
Which of the following statements about the Group 7 Halogens is NOT true?
1. the reactivity decreases down the group
2. the melting/boiling points decrease down the group
3. they all have 7 electrons in the outer shell
4. they can form a singly charged negative ion
5. they form ionic compounds when combined with group 1 metals
Which of the following statements about the Group 7 Halogens is NOT true?
1. the reactivity decreases down the group
2. the melting/boiling points increase down the group
3. they all have 1 electron in the outer shell
4. they can form a singly charged negative ion
5. they form ionic compounds when combined with group 1 metals
Which of the following statements about the Group 7 Halogens is NOT true?
1. the reactivity decreases down the group
2. the melting/boiling points increase down the group
3. they all have 7 electrons in the outer shell
4. they can form a singly charged positive ion
5. they form ionic compounds when combined with group 1 metals
Which of the following statements about the Group 7 Halogens is NOT true?
1. the reactivity decreases down the group
2. the melting/boiling points increase down the group
3. they all have 7 electrons in the outer shell
4. they can form a singly charged negative ion
5. they form covalent compounds when combined with group 1 metals
Which of the following metals forms a blue sulfate salt and found in the alloy brass?
1. zinc
2. copper
3. cobalt
4. titanium
5. nickel
Which of the following metals has compounds that give a blue colour to glass and is magnetic?
1. zinc
2. copper
3. cobalt
4. titanium
5. nickel
Which of the following metals is used to make light strong alloys and forms a white oxide used as a pigment?
1. iron
2. copper
3. cobalt
4. titanium
5. nickel
Which of the following metals forms green coloured compounds and is magnetic?
1. zinc
2. copper
3. magnesium
4. titanium
5. nickel
Which of the following metals is least likely to form coloured compounds?
1. zinc
2. copper
3. cobalt
4. chromium
5. nickel
Which is a unit of energy?
1. joule (J)
2. coulomb (C)
3. ampere (A)
4. volt (V)
5. ohm (Ω)
6. watt (W)
Which is a unit of electric charge?
1. joule (J)
2. coulomb (C)
3. ampere (A)
4. volt (V)
5. ohm (Ω)
6. watt (W)
Which is a unit of electrical current?
1. joule (J)
2. coulomb (C)
3. ampere (A)
4. volt (V)
5. ohm (Ω)
6. watt (W)
Which is a unit of electrical potential difference?
1. joule (J)
2. coulomb (C)
3. ampere (A)
4. volt (V)
5. ohm (Ω)
6. watt (W)
Which is a unit of electrical resistance?
1. joule (J)
2. coulomb (C)
3. ampere (A)
4. volt (V)
5. ohm (Ω)
6. watt (W)
Which is a unit of power?
1. joule (J)
2. coulomb (C)
3. ampere (A)
4. volt (V)
5. ohm (Ω)
6. watt (W)
Which of the following is renewable energy resource?
1. wave oscillation
2. nuclear reactor
3. coal furnace
4. natural gas furnace
5. oil furnace
Which of the following is renewable energy resource?
1. nuclear reactor
2. tidal movement
3. coal furnace
4. natural gas furnace
5. oil furnace
Which of the following is non-renewable energy resource?
1. wind turbine
2. solar panel
3. nuclear reactor
4. geothermal heat extractor
5. reservoir of water
Which of the following is renewable energy resource?
1. nuclear reactor
2. natural gas furnace
3. coal furnace
4. wind turbine
5. oil furnace
Which of the following is renewable energy resource?
1. nuclear reactor
2. natural gas furnace
3. coal furnace
4. oil furnace
5. reservoir of water
Which of the following is renewable energy resource?
1. solar panel
2. natural gas furnace
3. coal furnace
4. oil furnace
5. nuclear reactor
Which of the following is non-renewable energy resource?
1. wind turbine
2. coal furnace
3. solar panel
4. geothermal heat extractor
5. reservoir of water
Which of the following is non-renewable energy resource?
1. wind turbine
2. tidal movement
3. natural gas furnace
4. geothermal heat extractor
5. reservoir of water
Which of the following is non-renewable energy resource?
1. wind turbine
2. tidal movement
3. geothermal heat extractor
4. oil furnace
5. reservoir of water
Which of the following is renewable energy resource?
1. oil furnace
2. natural gas furnace
3. coal furnace
4. nuclear reactor
5. geothermal heat extractor
What temperature does the Celsius thermometer read in ^oC?
1. 36.0
2. 34.0
3. 44.0
4. 35.5
What temperature does the Celsius thermometer read in ^oC? [7i-23]
1. 101.0
2. 102.0
3. 101.5
4. 103.0
What temperature does the Celsius thermometer read in ^oC?
1. 144
2. 132
3. 126
4. 131
What temperature does the Celsius thermometer read in ^oC?
1. 203.0
2. 201.5
3. 227.0
4. 206.0
The diagram shows a simple calorimeter for measuring the heat given out by a liquid fuel burner. 100g of water was used to 'collect' the heat given out. The mass of fuel burned and temperature rise were measured. Which is the most efficient fuel?
1. mass of fuel = 1.20 g, temperature rise 24^oC
2. mass of fuel = 0.80g, temperature rise 12^oC
3. mass of fuel = 2.80g, temperature rise 28^oC
4. mass of fuel = 0.50 g, temperature rise 9^oC
The diagram shows a simple calorimeter for measuring the heat given out by a liquid fuel burner. 100g of water was used to 'collect' the heat given out. The mass of fuel burned and temperature rise were measured. Which is the least efficient fuel?
1. mass of fuel = 1.20 g, temperature rise 24^oC
2. mass of fuel = 0.80g, temperature rise 12^oC
3. mass of fuel = 2.80g, temperature rise 28^oC
4. mass of fuel = 0.50 g, temperature rise 9^oC
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 1?
1. chemical energy of fuel
2. thermal (internal) energy of steam
3. kinetic energy of steam turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 2?
1. chemical energy of fuel
2. thermal (internal) energy of steam
3. kinetic energy of steam turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 3?
1. chemical energy of fuel
2. thermal (internal) energy of steam
3. kinetic energy of steam turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 4?
1. chemical energy of fuel
2. thermal (internal) energy of steam
3. kinetic energy of steam turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 1?
1. solar radiation
2. kinetic energy of air movement
3. kinetic energy of turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 2?
1. solar radiation
2. kinetic energy of air movement
3. kinetic energy of turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 3?
1. solar radiation
2. kinetic energy of air movement
3. kinetic energy of turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 4?
1. solar radiation
2. kinetic energy of air movement
3. kinetic energy of turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 1?
1. gravitational potential energy of water
2. kinetic energy of flowing water
3. kinetic energy of turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 2?
1. gravitational potential energy of water
2. kinetic energy of flowing water
3. kinetic energy of turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 3?
1. gravitational potential energy of water
2. kinetic energy of flowing water
3. kinetic energy of turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 4?
1. gravitational potential energy of water
2. kinetic energy of flowing water
3. kinetic energy of turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 1?
1. geothermal (internal) energy
2. kinetic energy of steam flow
3. kinetic energy of turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 2?
1. geothermal (internal) energy
2. kinetic energy of steam flow
3. kinetic energy of turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 3?
1. geothermal (internal) energy
2. kinetic energy of steam flow
3. kinetic energy of turbine
4. generator
The diagram summarises four stages for a way of producing electricity. Which of the following matches stage 4?
1. geothermal (internal) energy
2. kinetic energy of steam flow
3. kinetic energy of turbine
4. generator
Which of the following consists of particles of relative mass of 4 and an electric charge of 2+?
1. alpha radiation
2. beta radiation
3. positron emission
4. neutron beam
5. gamma radiation
Which of the following consists of particles of relative mass of ~1/2000 and an electric charge of -1?
1. alpha radiation
2. beta radiation
3. positron emission
4. neutron beam
5. gamma radiation
Which of the following consists of particles of relative mass of ~1/2000 and an electric charge of +1?
1. alpha radiation
2. beta radiation
3. positron emission
4. neutron beam
5. gamma radiation
Which of the following consists of particles of relative mass of 1 and an electric charge of 0?
1. alpha radiation
2. beta radiation
3. positron emission
4. neutron beam
5. gamma radiation
Which of the following consists of waves/particles of relative mass of 0 and an electric charge of 0?
1. alpha radiation
2. beta radiation
3. positron emission
4. neutron beam
5. gamma radiation
Which of the following consists of helium nuclei?
1. alpha radiation
2. beta radiation
3. positron emission
4. neutron beam
5. gamma radiation
Which of the following consists of electrons travelling at ~5/6th the speed of light?
1. alpha radiation
2. beta radiation
3. positron emission
4. neutron beam
5. gamma radiation
Which of the following consists of electromagnetic radiation?
1. alpha radiation
2. beta radiation
3. positron emission
4. neutron beam
5. gamma radiation
Which of the following, on collison, can split atoms of uranium-235 (nuclear fission)?
1. alpha radiation
2. beta radiation
3. positron emission
4. neutron beam
5. gamma radiation
What sort of energy store does water behind a dam represent?
1. gravitational potential
2. elastic potential
3. thermal
4. kinetic
What sort of energy store does a wound up clock spring represent?
1. gravitational potential
2. elastic potential
3. thermal
4. kinetic
What sort of energy store does deep underground rock represent?
1. gravitational potential
2. elastic potential
3. thermal
4. kinetic
What sort of energy store does the wind represent?
1. gravitational potential
2. elastic potential
3. thermal
4. kinetic
In which circuits will the bulb/bulbs be the dimmest?
1. circuit 01
2. circuit 04
3. circuit 05
4. circuit 07
In which two circuits will the bulbs be the same brightness?
1. circuit 01 and circuit 05
2. circuit 01 and circuit 04
3. circuit 04 and circuit 05
4. circuit 05 and circuit 07
In which two circuits will the bulb/bulbs be the same brightness?
1. circuit 01 and 05
2. circuit 04 and 05
3. circuit 05 and 07
4. circuit 01 and 07
Circuit 18 shows how three lamps and four ammeters are wired together. All the lamps are identical and all four switches are closed. If ammeter a4 reads 12A, what will be the current reading on ammeter a2? [7j-41]
1. 4A
2. 8A
3. 12A
4. 3A
Circuit 18 shows how three lamps and four ammeters are wired together. All the lamps are identical and all four switches are closed. If ammeter a1 reads 3A, what will be the current reading on ammeter a4?
1. 3A
2. 9A
3. 6A
4. 1A
Circuit 18 shows how three lamps and four ammeters are wired together. The lamps are NOT identical but all four switches are closed. If ammeter a4 reads 8A, a1 reads 3A and a2 reads 2A, what will be the current reading on ammeter a3?
1. 1A
2. 2A
3. 3A
4. 4A
Circuit 18 shows how three lamps and four ammeters are wired together. The lamps are NOT identical but all four switches are closed. If ammeter a1 reads 2A, a2 reads 1A and a3 reads 4A, what will be the current reading on ammeter a4?
1. 4A
2. 6A
3. 5A
4. 7A
Which statement about electricity and circuits is TRUE?
1. the conventional current flows from + to -
2. a circuit does not have to be complete for a current to flow
3. to be effective cells must be connected + to + and - to -
4. more bulbs wired in series decreases the total resistance
Which statement about electricity and circuits is TRUE?
1. the conventional current flows from + to +
2. a circuit must be complete for a current to flow
3. to be effective cells must be connected + to + and - to -
4. more bulbs wired in series decreases the total resistance
Which statement about electricity and circuits is TRUE?
1. the conventional current flows from - to -
2. a circuit does not have to be complete for a current to flow
3. to be effective cells must be connected + to - and + to -
4. more bulbs wired in parallel increases the total resistance
Which statement about electricity and circuits is TRUE?
1. the conventional current flows from - to +
2. a circuit does not have to be complete for a current to flow
3. to be effective cells must be connected - to - and + to +
4. more bulbs wired in series increases the total resistance
Which statement about electricity and circuits is TRUE?
1. the conventional current flows from - to +
2. a circuit does not have to be complete for a current to flow
3. to be effective cells must be connected - to - and + to +
4. more bulbs wired in parallel decrease the total resistance
Circuit 21 shows the arrangement of six identical bulbs (X) and four ammeters (a1 to a4). If a1 reads 3A and a4 reads 5.5A what will ammeter a2 read?
1. 1.0A
2. 1.5A
3. 2.0A
4. 0.5A
Circuit 21 shows the arrangement of six identical bulbs (X) and four ammeters (a1 to a4). If a1 reads 6A and a2 reads 3A what will ammeter a4 read?
1. 12A
2. 10A
3. 11A
4. 9A
Circuit 21 shows the arrangement of six identical bulbs (X) and four ammeters (a1 to a4). If a2 reads 4.5A and a3 reads 3.0A what will ammeter a1 read?
1. 6.0A
2. 7.5A
3. 1.5A
4. 9.0A
The ratings for four typical domestic appliance fuses are given below. Which is the safest fuse to use for an appliance with a normal operating current of 1.5A?
1. 3A
2. 5A
3. 8A
4. 2A
The ratings for four typical domestic appliance fuses are given below. Which is the safest fuse to use for an appliance with a normal operating current of 5A?
1. 3A
2. 5A
3. 8A
4. 13A
The ratings for four typical domestic appliance fuses are given below. Which is the safest fuse to use for an appliance with a normal operating current of 8A?
1. 3A
2. 5A
3. 8A
4. 13A
The ratings for four typical domestic appliance fuses are given below. Which is the safest fuse to use for an appliance with a normal operating current of 10A?
1. 3A
2. 5A
3. 8A
4. 13A
The Circuit 23 shows a two way switch s1 and a simple switch s2, connected to a power supply and five lamps (b1 to b5). Which lamps will be ON when only switch s1a is closed?
1. b2 and b3
2. b1 and b4
3. b1, b2, b3, and b5
4. b1, b2, b4 and b5
The Circuit 23 shows a two way switch s1 and a simple switch s2, connected to a power supply and five lamps (b1 to b5). Which lamps will be ON when only switch s1b is closed?
1. b2 and b3
2. b1 and b4
3. b1, b2, b3 and b5
4. b1, b2, b4 and b5
The Circuit 23 shows a two way switch s1 and a simple switch s2, connected to a power supply and five lamps (b1 to b5). Which lamps will be ON when switches s1a and s2 are closed?
1. b2 and b3
2. b1 and b4
3. b1, b2, b3 and b5
4. b1, b2, b4 and b5
The Circuit 23 shows a two way switch s1 and a simple switch s2, connected to a power supply and five lamps (b1 to b5). Which lamps will be ON when switches s1b and s2 are closed?
1. b2 and b3
2. b1 and b4
3. b1, b2, b3 and b5
4. b1, b2, b4 and b5
Which of the following are units of mass?
1. kg
2. Nm
3. kg/m³
4. m³
5. N/m²
Which of the following are units of work done?
1. kg
2. Nm
3. kg/m³
4. m³
5. N/m²
Which of the following are units of density?
1. kg
2. Nm
3. kg/m³
4. m³
5. N/m²
Which of the following are units of volume?
1. kg
2. Nm
3. kg/m³
4. m³
5. N/m²
Which of the following are units of pressure?
1. kg
2. Nm
3. kg/m³
4. m³
5. N/m²
Which word means an upward force acting on an object in a fluid (gas or liquid)?
1. upthrust
2. pressure
3. friction
4. weight
Which word means the force of attraction between any two objects?
1. upthrust
2. gravity
3. friction
4. weight
Which word means the force inhibiting two materials or objects in contact passing each other?
1. upthrust
2. pressure
3. friction
4. weight
Which word means the force of gravity on an object
1. upthrust
2. pressure
3. friction
4. weight
The diagram shows the four forces involved and their direction of 'action' as a person is swimming through water. Which of the four forces corresponds to friction?
1. F1
2. F2
3. F3
4. F4
The diagram shows the four forces involved and their direction of 'action' as a person is swimming through water. Which of the four forces corresponds to weight due to gravity?
1. F1
2. F2
3. F3
4. F4
The diagram shows the four forces involved and their direction of 'action' as a person is swimming through water. Which of the four forces corresponds to the 'driving thrust' force?
1. F1
2. F2
3. F3
4. F4
The diagram shows the four forces involved and their direction of 'action' as a person is swimming through water. Which of the four forces corresponds to upthrust?
1. F1
2. F2
3. F3
4. F4
Which of objects W to Z will sink in water?
1. material W: mass = 8 g, volume = 10 cm³
2. material X: mass = 30 g, volume = 20 cm³
3. material Y: mass = 27 g, volume = 30 cm³
4. material Z: mass = 20 g, volume = 40 cm³
Which of objects W to Z will float on water?
1. material W: mass = 12 g, volume = 10 cm³
2. material X: mass = 22 g, volume = 20 cm³
3. material Y: mass = 27 g, volume = 30 cm³
4. material Z: mass = 20 g, volume = 19 cm³
Which of objects W to Z will float on water?
1. material W: mass = 12 g, volume = 10 cm³
2. material X: mass = 22 g, volume = 20 cm³
3. material Y: mass = 30 g, volume = 28 cm³
4. material Z: mass = 12 g, volume = 13 cm³
Which of objects W to Z will sink in water?
1. material W: mass = 15 g, volume = 10 cm³
2. material X: mass = 10 g, volume = 20 cm³
3. material Y: mass = 27 g, volume = 30 cm³
4. material Z: mass = 20 g, volume = 40 cm³
The diagram on the left summarises the forces acting on a cyclist. Which corresponds to friction and air resistance?
1. F1
2. F2
3. F3
4. F4
The diagram on the left summarises the forces acting on a cyclist. Which corresponds to weight due to gravity?
1. F1
2. F2
3. F3
4. F4
The diagram on the left summarises the forces acting on a cyclist. Which corresponds to the pedalling thrust of the cyclist?
1. F1
2. F2
3. F3
4. F4
The diagram on the left summarises the forces acting on a cyclist. Which corresponds to a force produced by a compression?
1. F1
2. F2
3. F3
4. F4
The diagram on the left summarises the forces acting on a cyclist. Which must be TRUE to get constant speed?
1. force F1 is equal to F3
2. force F1 is bigger than F3
3. force F3 is bigger than F1
4. force F2 is equal to F4
The diagram on the left summarises the forces acting on a cyclist. Which must be TRUE to decrease the speed?
1. force F1 is equal to F3
2. force F1 is bigger than F3
3. force F3 is bigger than F1
4. force F2 is equal to F4
The diagram on the left summarises the forces acting on a cyclist. Which must be TRUE to increase speed?
1. force F1 is equal to F3
2. force F1 is bigger than F3
3. force F3 is bigger than F1
4. force F2 is equal to F4
The diagram on the left summarises the forces acting on a cyclist. Which must be TRUE when the brakes are applied effectively?
1. force F2 is equal to F4
2. force F2 is bigger than F3
3. force F1 is bigger than F2
4. force F1 is greater than F3
A student carried out an experiment by putting weights on the end of a spring. After each weight was added, the length of the spring was carefully measured. The results are summarised below.
Weight added to spring (N) 2 4 6 8 10
Length of spring (cm) 23 27 31 35 39
From the data, what is the spring extension per N weight added?
1. 2 cm
2. 1 cm
3. 3 cm
4. 4 cm
A student carried out an experiment by putting weights on the end of a spring. After each weight was added, the length of the spring was carefully measured. The results are summarised below.
Weight added to spring (N) 2 4 6 8 10
Length of spring (cm) 23 27 31 35 39
From the data, what would be the spring length with a weight of 7N on?
1. 32 cm
2. 33 cm
3. 34 cm
4. 30 cm
A student carried out an experiment by putting weights on the end of a spring. After each weight was added, the length of the spring was carefully measured. The results are summarised below.
Weight added to spring (N) 2 4 6 8 10
Length of spring (cm) 23 27 31 35 39
From the data, what is the real length of the spring with no weight on?
1. 20 cm
2. 21 cm
3. 19 cm
4. 22 cm
A student carried out an experiment by putting weights on the end of a spring. After each weight was added, the length of the spring was carefully measured. The results are summarised below.
Weight added to spring (N) 2 4 6 8 10
Length of spring (cm) 23 27 31 35 39
From the data, what would be the spring length with a weight of 15N on?
1. 47 cm
2. 51 cm
3. 53 cm
4. 49 cm
Which matches the time it takes for the Earth to orbit the Sun once?
1. 365 days
2. 28 days
3. 24 hours
4. 12 hours
Which matches the time it takes for the Moon to orbit the Earth once?
1. 365 days
2. 28 days
3. 24 hours
4. 12 hours
Which matches the time it takes for the Earth to spin round once on its axis?
1. 365 days
2. 28 days
3. 24 hours
4. 12 hours
Which matches the length of daylight on the equator?
1. 365 days
2. 28 days
3. 24 hours
4. 12 hours
Which planet is nearest the Sun?
1. Mercury
2. Venus
3. Mars
4. Saturn
Which planet is the 2nd in order from the Sun?
1. Mercury
2. Venus
3. Mars
4. Saturn
Why is dwarf Pluto colder than the other major planets in our solar system?
1. it is the smallest radius planet
2. it is furthest from the Sun
3. it has the smallest mass
4. it has the longest year
Why is there no liquid water on Mercury or Venus?
1. they rotate too fast
2. their total daylight hours is too long
3. they are too hot
4. they are too cold
Why is there no liquid water on Mars or Pluto?
1. they rotate too fast
2. their total daylight hours is too long
3. they are too hot
4. they are too cold
Which position in the cycle corresponds to the Autumn season in the Northern Hemisphere?
1. position 1
2. position 2
3. position 3
4. position 4
Which position in the cycle corresponds to the Winter season in the Northern Hemisphere?
1. position 1
2. position 2
3. position 3
4. position 4
Which position in the cycle corresponds to the Spring season in the Northern Hemisphere?
1. position 1
2. position 2
3. position 3
4. position 4
Which position in the cycle corresponds to the Summer season in the Northern Hemisphere?
1. position 1
2. position 2
3. position 3
4. position 4
Which position in the cycle corresponds to the Spring season in the Southern Hemisphere?
1. position 1
2. position 2
3. position 3
4. position 4
Which position in the cycle corresponds to the Summer season in the Southern Hemisphere?
1. position 1
2. position 2
3. position 3
4. position 4
Which position in the cycle corresponds to the Autumn season in the Southern Hemisphere?
1. position 1
2. position 2
3. position 3
4. position 4
Which position in the cycle corresponds to the Winter season in the Southern Hemisphere?
1. position 1
2. position 2
3. position 3
4. position 4
Which object is the Sun?
1. object U
2. object V
3. object X
4. object Y
5. object Z
Which object is a comet?
1. object U
2. object V
3. object X
4. object Y
5. object Z
Which object could be the Earth?
1. object U
2. object V
3. object X
4. object Y
5. object Z
Which object is our Moon?
1. object U
2. object V
3. object X
4. object Y
5. object Z
Which object could be an asteroid?
1. object U
2. object V
3. object X
4. object Y
5. object Z
Which object could be a star?
1. object U
2. object V
3. object X
4. object Y
5. object Z
Which object is a moon of a planet?
1. object U
2. object V
3. object X
4. object Y
5. object Z
Which path is most likely to correspond to mid-winter?
1. path 1
2. path 2
3. path 3
Which path is most likely to correspond to midway between summer and winter (mid-autumn or mid-spring)?
1. path 1
2. path 2
3. path 3
Which path is most likely to correspond to mid-summer?
1. path 1
2. path 2
3. path 3
The melting points and boiling points of substances A-D. Which is a liquid at 0^oC?
[Substance] Melting Point ^oC and Boiling Point ^oC
1. -39 and 354
2. 119 and 446
3. 15 and 126
4. -127 and -33
The melting points and boiling points of substances A-D. Which is a gas at 0^oC?
[Substance] Melting Point ^oC and Boiling Point ^oC
1. -39 and 354
2. 119 and 446
3. 15 and 126
4. -127 and -33
The melting points and boiling points of substances A-D. Which is a liquid at 30^oC?
[Substance] Melting Point ^oC and Boiling Point ^oC
1. -39 and 10
2. 119 and 446
3. 15 and 126
4. -127 and -33
The melting points and boiling points of substances A-D. Which is a liquid at 20 ^oC?
[Substance] Melting Point ^oC and Boiling Point ^oC
1. -142 and -78
2. -95 and 4
3. -66 and 42
4. 90 and 189
Which of the following types of heat transfer matches 'from gas burner flame to milk in a pan'?
1. conduction
2. convection
3. radiation
4. evaporation
Which of the following types of heat transfer matches 'shimmering image in summer'?
1. conduction
2. convection
3. radiation
4. evaporation
Which of the following types of heat transfer matches heat from the Sun?
1. conduction
2. convection
3. radiation
4. evaporation
Which of the following types of heat transfer matches cooling by sweating?
1. conduction
2. convection
3. radiation
4. evaporation
Which of the following types of heat transfer matches placing the heating element near the base of an electric immersion heater?
1. conduction
2. convection
3. radiation
4. evaporation
Which of the following types of heat transfer matches 'feeling heat' when near a lit reading lamp?
1. conduction
2. convection
3. radiation
4. evaporation
Which of the following materials feels the coldest to touch in winter?
1. glass
2. polythene
3. wood
4. steel
Which of the following materials is the best conductor of thermal energy?
1. aluminium
2. brick
3. wood
4. glass
Which of the following building construction materials is the best insulator?
1. brick
2. wood
3. aluminium
4. lead
Which of the following materials used in house construction is the most effective insulating material?
1. wood
2. steel
3. expanded polystyrene
4. glass
Which can be picked up by a magnet?
1. steel rod
2. aluminium can
3. plastic comb
4. graphite rod
Which can be picked up by a magnet?
1. nickel plate
2. aluminium can
3. ceramic bowl
4. graphite rod
Which can be picked up by a magnet?
1. aluminium screw
2. plastic fork
3. pewter mug
4. cobalt plate
Which of the following is NOT true?
1. if object X is attracted by a magnet, X must be a magnet
2. magnetic forces can act through non-magnetic materials
3. if object X is repelled by a magnet, X must be a magnet
4. magnetic forces can act through magnetic materials
Which of the following is TRUE?
1. the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet go from the south pole to the north pole
2. the Earth's geographic north pole is actually the north pole of the Earth's magnetic field
3. if two pieces of metal repel each other, they are both likely to be magnets
4. unlike poles have no effect on each other
Which of the following is TRUE?
1. a freely moving magnet comes to rest pointing in an east-west direction
2. the Earth's geographic south pole is actually the south pole of the Earth's magnetic field
3. if two pieces of metal repel each other, neither can be a magnet
4. the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet go from the north pole to the south pole
The sketch on the left shows the design of a simple circuit breaker. These are safety switches which 'break' the circuit if the current becomes too large. To make the magnetic field effect of the coil stronger what should the core be made of??
1. hard steel
2. soft iron
3. malleable copper
4. aluminium alloy
The sketch on the left shows the design of a simple circuit breaker. These are safety switches which 'break' the circuit if the current becomes too large. What is the purpose of the soft iron core?
1. to hold the coil in place
2. to ensure it is a good electrical conductor
3. to concentrate the magnetic field produced
4. to allow efficient conduction of heat to keep the switch cool at higher currents
The sketch on the left shows the design of a simple circuit breaker. These are safety switches which 'break' the circuit if the current becomes too large. What should the coil surrounding the core be made of?
1. steel wire
2. insulated steel wire
3. bare copper wire
4. insulated copper wire
The sketch on the left shows the design of a simple circuit breaker. These are safety switches which 'break' the circuit if the current becomes too large. Which are the best combination of reasons why the rocker should be made of iron?
1. its strong and temporarily magnetic
2. its strong, high melting and a good conductor of heat
3. its high melting, strong but flexible and a good electrical conductor
4. its strong, magnetic and won't corrode easily
The sketch on the left shows the design of a simple circuit breaker. These are safety switches which 'break' the circuit if the current becomes too large. What happens if there is an unsafe increase in current?
1. the rocker heats up and bends away from the upper contact breaking the circuit
2. the end of the rocker melts breaking the circuit
3. the magnetic field increases sufficiently for the soft iron core to attract the rocker breaking the circuit
4. the spring breaks allowing the contacts to move apart breaking the circuit
Which of the following is NOT true?
1. soft iron makes strong permanent magnet
2. steel makes a weak temporary magnet
3. steel makes a strong permanent magnet
4. soft iron makes a strong temporary magnet
What material should a compass needle be made of?
1. iron
2. brass
3. aluminium
4. steel
When materials are placed in the path of a light beam various things can happen. Which word describes materials that allow light through easily giving a clear image?
1. transparent
2. translucent
3. opaque
When materials are placed in the path of a light beam various things can happen. Which word describes materials that allow light through but scatters it around so there is no clear image?
1. transparent
2. translucent
3. opaque
When materials are placed in the path of a light beam various things can happen. Which word describes materials that will not allow light through?
1. transparent
2. translucent
3. opaque
When an incident ray of light hits a water or glass surface, most of the light passes through the air-water interface and a little is reflected. Which of the four rays is the correct reflected ray?
1. ray 2
2. ray 3
3. ray 1
4. ray 4
When an incident ray of light hits a water or glass surface, most of the light passes through the air-water interface and a little is reflected. Which of the four rays is the correct refracted ray?
1. ray 2
2. ray 3
3. ray 1
4. ray 4
In the diagram an incident ray of light hits a transparent surface, most of the light passes through the air-water interface and a little is reflected. Which of the four rays is the correct reflected ray?
1. ray 4
2. ray 2
3. ray 1
4. ray 3
In the diagram an incident ray of light hits a transparent surface, most of the light passes through the air-water interface and a little is reflected. Which of the four rays is the correct refracted ray?
1. ray 4
2. ray 2
3. ray 1
4. ray 3
Which colour combination produces the colour white?
1. red and green
2. blue and red
3. green and blue
4. red, green and blue
Which colour combination produces the colour cyan?
1. red and green
2. blue and red
3. green and blue
4. red, green and blue
Which colour combination produces the colour magenta?
1. red and green
2. blue and red
3. green and blue
4. red, green and blue
Which colour combination produces the colour yellow?
1. red and green
2. blue and red
3. green and blue
4. red, green and blue
The diagram shows what happens to a ray of light when it strikes the surface of a plane mirror. The vertical dotted line is at 90^o to the surface of the mirror. Which statement is NOT true?
1. angle 1 always equals angle 4
2. angle 2 always equals angle 4
3. angle 2 always equals angle 3
4. angle of incidence = angle of reflection
The diagram shows what happens to a ray of light when it strikes the surface of a thick glass plane mirror. Which statement is NOT true?
1. 1 is the only incident ray
2. 3 and 4 are reflected rays
3. 2 and 5 are refracted rays
4. 4 and 5 are dimmer rays than ray 1
An object looks yellow in white light. The white light is passed through a clear plastic green filter onto the object in front of the screen. What colour will the object appear to be?
1. red
2. green
3. blue
4. black
An object looks yellow in white light. The white light is passed through a clear plastic blue filter onto the object in front of the screen. What colour will the object appear to be?
1. red
2. green
3. blue
4. black
Which of the following statements about colour is NOT true?
1. an object looks red in white light because it reflects blue and green light
2. a green filter produces green light because it absorbs red and blue light
3. a blue object looks black in red or green light because it absorbs red or green light
4. an object looks black in white light because it absorbs red, green and blue light
Which of the following statements about colour is NOT true?
1. an object looks red in white light because it absorbs blue and green light
2. a green filter produces green light because it absorbs red and blue light
3. a blue object looks black in red or green light because it reflects red or green light
4. an object looks black in white light because it absorbs red, green and blue light
Through which of the following will sound travel the fastest?
1. pure solids
2. pure liquids
3. gas mixture
4. solution
Through which of the following will sound travel the slowest?
1. pure solids
2. pure liquids
3. gas mixture
4. solution
Various sounds were recorded using a microphone and the signal displayed on an oscilloscope (CRO). Which sound wave was the quietist of lowest amplitude?
1. sound 1
2. sound 2
3. sound 3
4. sound 4
Various sounds were recorded using a microphone and the signal displayed on an oscilloscope (CRO). Which sound wave was the loudest of highest amplitude?
1. sound 1
2. sound 2
3. sound 3
4. sound 4
Various sounds were recorded using a microphone and the signal displayed on an oscilloscope (CRO). Which sound wave has the lowest pitch/frequency?
1. sound 1
2. sound 2
3. sound 3
4. sound 4
Various sounds were recorded using a microphone and the signal displayed on an oscilloscope (CRO). Which sound wave was the highest pitch/frequency?
1. sound 1
2. sound 2
3. sound 3
4. sound 4
Assume sketched same width of CRO screen and note the number of waves and their height. A class of students were listening to single music notes played into a microphone and the result displayed on a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO). The students where asked to sketch pictures for each sound produced. A selection of their sketches is shown above. Which student has sketched the result of the loud highly pitched note?
1. FRED
2. JO
3. TANYA
4. RICKY
Assume sketched same width of CRO screen and note the number of waves and their height. A class of students were listening to single music notes played into a microphone and the result displayed on a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO). The students where asked to sketch pictures for each sound produced. A selection of their sketches is shown above. Which student has sketched the result of a soft low pitched note?
1. FRED
2. JO
3. TANYA
4. RICKY
Assume sketched same width of CRO screen and note the number of waves and their height. A class of students were listening to single music notes played into a microphone and the result displayed on a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO). The students where asked to sketch pictures for each sound produced. A selection of their sketches is shown above. Which student has sketched the result of a loud low pitched note?
1. FRED
2. JO
3. TANYA
4. RICKY
Assume sketched same width of CRO screen and note the number of waves and their height. A class of students were listening to single music notes played into a microphone and the result displayed on a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO). The students where asked to sketch pictures for each sound produced. A selection of their sketches is shown above. Which student has sketched the result of a soft highly pitched note?
1. FRED
2. JO
3. TANYA
4. RICKY
One unit of electricity is equal to using a 1000W (a power of 1kW) appliance for 1 hour. What is the cost of using a 1.5kW heater for 2 hours if the cost of electricity is 7p/unit?
1. 10.5 p
2. 3.5 p
3. 21.0 p
4. 7.0 p
One unit of electricity is equal to using a 1000W (a power of 1kW) appliance for 1 hour. What is the cost of using a 60W light bulb for 20 hours if the cost of electricity is 5p/unit?
1. 6p
2. £6
3. £1.20
4. 60p
What are the energy changes when using a lift to go to an upper floor in a block of flats?
1. electrical => kinetic => gravitational potential energies
2. chemical => thermal (heat) => kinetic => electrical => heat/thermal energies
3. chemical => kinetic => gravitational potential energies
4. electrical => kinetic => elastic potential energies
What are the energy changes when a football is kicked up into the air?
1. electrical => kinetic => gravitational potential energies
2. chemical => thermal (heat) => kinetic => heat/thermal energies
3. chemical => kinetic => gravitational potential energies
4. chemical => kinetic => elastic potential energies
Above is a basic design of a ride, starting with the car being pulled to the top of a hill, falling down the hill, passing through the loop and brought to a halt by applying a brake pad system. The main energy change happening at points (4) and (8) is?
1. chemical to kinetic energy
2. kinetic to gravitational potential energy
3. gravitational potential to kinetic energy
4. kinetic to heat/thermal energy
Above is a basic design of a ride, starting with the car being pulled to the top of a hill, falling down the hill, passing through the loop and brought to a halt by applying a brake pad system. The main energy change happening at point (9) is?
1. chemical to kinetic energy
2. kinetic to gravitational potential energy
3. gravitational potential to kinetic energy
4. kinetic to heat/thermal energy
Above is a basic design of a ride, starting with the car being pulled to the top of a hill, falling down the hill, passing through the loop and brought to a halt by applying a brake pad system. The main force acting at points (4) and (8) is?
1. friction
2. gravity
3. magnetic
4. friction - air resistance
Mobile phones operate on a charged up battery system. Which energy transfer corresponds to reading a text message?
1. electrical => electrical => light
2. electrical => chemical => light
3. chemical => electrical => light
4. chemicall => chemical => electrical
Various sorts of energy transfers occur when generating and using electricity. Which of the following energy transfers happens in a clockwork radio?
1. gravitational potential => kinetic => electrical energy
2. chemical => heat => kinetic => electrical energy
3. heat => kinetic => electrical energy
4. elastic potential => kinetic => electrical energy
The force of gravity on the Earth's surface is 10N/kg. The force of gravity on the Moon's surface is 1.7N/kg (about ¹/₆th of Earth). A Moon bound astronaut on Earth has a mass of 68kg. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
1. the astronaut's weight on Earth is 68N
2. the astronaut's weight on the Moon is about 116N
3. the astronaut's mass is zero, half way to the moon
4. the astronaut's mass on the Moon is about 11.3kg
The force of gravity on the Earth's surface is 10N/kg. The force of gravity on the Moon's surface is 1.7N/kg (about ¹/₆th of Earth). A Moon bound astronaut on Earth has a mass of 68kg. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
1. the astronaut's weight on Earth is 68N
2. the astronaut's weight on the Moon is about 680N
3. the astronaut's mass is zero half way to the moon
4. the astronaut's mass on the Moon is 68kg
Artificial satellites are useful objects which can be put up in space to orbit the Earth. Which statement is FALSE?
1. satellite 1 cannot accurately monitor all the Earth's surface
2. satellite 2 can be orbited in a fixed position above the same point on the Earth's surface
3. the closer the satellite is to the Earth, the faster the orbital speed
4. for communications, satellites can be used to both receive and transmit radio and TV signals
Artificial satellites are useful objects which can be put up in space to orbit the Earth. Which statement is FALSE?
1. satellite 1 can accurately monitor all the Earth's surface
2. satellite 2 cannot be orbited in a fixed position above the same point on the Earth's surface
3. the closer the satellite is to the Earth, the faster the orbital speed
4. for communications, satellites can be used to receive and transmit radio and TV signals
Which of the following matches a speed of 8.0m/s?
1. a sprinter runs 100m in 10.2s
2. a conveyer belt moves along 20m in 2.5s
3. a cyclist covers 500m in 40s
4. a car moves 400m in 36s
Which of the following matches a speed of 12.5m/s?
1. a sprinter runs 100m in 10.2s
2. a conveyer belt moves along 20m in 2.5s
3. a cyclist covers 500m in 40s
4. a car moves 400m in 36s
Which graph represents acceleration?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Which graph represents stationary object?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Which graph represents deceleration?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Which graph represents constant speed, but not zero?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
A cyclist is travelling at an average speed of 6 m/s. How far will the cyclist travel in 2 minutes?
1. 20 m
2. 3 m
3. 360 m
4. 720 m
A racing car is travelling at an average speed of 20 m/s through a curved section of the race track. How long will it take the driver to cover 600 m?
1. 30 s
2. 60 s
3. 15 s
4. 3 s
Which is 'designed' to create the most pressure on contact with a surface?
1. feet of a camel
2. skis
3. hypodermic needle
4. snowshoes
Which is 'designed' to create the least pressure on contact with a surface?
1. cats paw
2. drawing pin
3. hypodermic needle
4. snowshoes
If weight w1 is 4 N, distance d2 is 50 cm and weight w2 is 2 N, what distance d1, must weight w1 be from the pivot rod to balance the ruler?
1. 25 cm
2. 20 cm
3. 10 cm
4. 40 cm
If distance d1 is 40 cm, distance d2 is 8 cm and weight w2 is 15 N, what weight must w1 be to balance the ruler?
1. 6 N
2. 3 N
3. 9 N
4. 12 N
A spanner is 20 cm long (d), and is turned with a force of 5 N (F). What is the applied turning effect of the force or its moment?
1. 0.25 N/cm
2. 100 Ncm
3. 4 cm/N
4. 25 cmN
A spanner is 0.4 m long (d), and is turned with a force of 10 N (F). What is the applied turning effect of the force or its moment?
1. 10.4 mN
2. 2.5 N/m
3. 0.04 m/N
4. 4 Nm
A stiletto heal has a base area of 3 cm². If the woman weighs 750 N, what pressure does she create on the floor when standing on one heel?
1. 250 N/m²
2. 250 N/cm²
3. 2250 N/m²
4. 2250 N/cm²
A brick has a base of 10 cm x 25 cm and weighs 30 N. what pressure does a stack of ten bricks create simulating the pressure created by a low wall?
1. 3.0 N/m²
2. 0.012 N/m²
3. 2.5 N/cm²
4. 0.12 N/cm²
On planet Earth, what is the approximate weight of a person of mass 50 kg?
1. 500 N
2. 5 n
3. 50 N
4. 0.2 N
On planet Earth, what is the approximate weight of a person of mass 60 kg?
1. 60 N
2. 600 N
3. 6 N
4. 0.17 N
On planet Earth, what is the approximate weight of a person of mass 70 kg?
1. 70 N
2. 7 n
3. 700 N
4. 0.14 N
On planet Earth, what is the approximate weight of a person of mass 80 kg?
1. 80 N
2. 8 n
3. 0.125 N
4. 800 N
On the moon, where g = 1.62 m/s², the approximate weight of a 70 kg astronaut will be?
1. 113 N
2. 11.3 N
3. 43 N
4. 430 N
On the moon, where g = 1.62 m/s², the approximate weight of a 80 kg astronaut will be?
1. 13 N
2. 130 N
3. 49 N
4. 490 N
On planet Earth, what is the approximate mass of a person of whose weight is 700 N?
1. 700 kg
2. 7 kg
3. 70 kg
4. 7000 kg
On planet Earth, what is the approximate mass of a person of whose weight is 900 N?
1. 9 kg
2. 9000 kg
3. 900 kg
4. 90 kg
A machine operates a force of 300 N over a distance of 5 m.
What work is done?
1. 1.5 kJ
2. 150 J
3. 60 kJ
4. 60 J
A machine operates a force of 400 N over a distance of 2.0 m.
What work is done?
1. 200 J
2. 0.8 kJ
3. 0.2 kJ
4. 80 J
A machine operator uses a lever force of 60 N over a distance of 0.5 m.
What work is done?
1. 120 J
2. 300 J
3. 30 J
4. 12 J
A machine operator uses a lever force of 80 N over a distance of 40 cm.
What work is done?
1. 3200 J
2. 2 J
3. 20 J
4. 32 J
A machine transfers 6000 J of useful work in 2 minutes.
What is the power of the machine?
1. 50 W
2. 30 kW
3. 5 kW
4. 300 W
A machine transfers 12 000 J of useful work in 1 minute.
What is the power of the machine?
1. 120 W
2. 200 W
3. 12 kW
4. 10 kW
A machine transfers 80 000 J of useful work in 40 seconds.
What is the power of the machine?
1. 20 000 W
2. 200 W
3. 2 kW
4. 20 kW
A machine transfers 200 000 J of useful work in 10 seconds.
What is the power of the machine?
1. 2 000 W
2. 200 W
3. 200 kW
4. 20 kW
Which word is associated with freely moving particles spreading due to their own kinetic energy?
1. diffusing
2. dissipating
3. refracting
4. conducting
5. convecting
Which word is associated with wasted energy in some energy store transfer process?
1. diffusing
2. dissipating
3. refracting
4. conducting
5. convecting
Which word is associated with light rays changing direction at an interface of two materials of different density?
1. diffusing
2. dissipating
3. refracting
4. diffracting
5. convecting
Which word is associated with thermal energy spreading through a solid from a hot region to a cooler region?
1. diffusing
2. dissipating
3. refracting
4. conducting
5. convecting
Which word is associated with air currents rising on a warm day?
1. diffusing
2. dissipating
3. refracting
4. conducting
5. convecting
electrical energy => useful/wasted energy outputs
energy input transfers as a 3 J/s of wasted sound energy
of 600 J/s to hair dryer 590 J/s of useful heat energy
the appliance is being used ? J/s of ? energy
The table summarises what happens to the energy input and output of an electrical appliance. Which is the most likely missing quantity and form of output energy when the hair dryer is in use?
1. 7 J/s of useful kinetic energy
2. 7 J/s of wasted potential energy
3. 5 J/s of wasted kinetic energy
4. 5 J/s of useful potential energy

electrical energy => useful/wasted energy outputs
input energy transfers as a 370 J/s of useful kinetic energy
of 800 J/s to food mixer 400 J/s of wasted heat energy
the appliance is being used ? J/s of ? energy
The table summarises what happens to the energy input and output of an electrical appliance. Which is the most likely missing quantity and form of output energy when the food mixer is in use?
1. 30 J/s of wasted kinetic energy
2. 30 J/s of wasted sound energy
3. 20 J/s of useful heat energy
4. 130 J/s of wasted heat energy

Which is the electrical circuit symbol for a fixed resistor?
Which is the electrical circuit symbol for a variable resistor?
Which is the electrical circuit symbol for a diode?
Which is the electrical circuit symbol for a thermistor?
Which is the electrical circuit symbol for an LED?
Which is the electrical circuit symbol for an LDR?
What current is flowing if the p.d. across a 2.0 Ω resistor is 10.0 V?
1. 5.0 A
2. 0.2 A
3. 8.0 A
4. 200 A
What current is flowing if the p.d. across a 5.0 Ω resistor is 1.5 V?
1. 3 A
2. 0.3 A
3. 7.5 A
4. 6.5 A
What current is flowing if the p.d. across a 12 Ω resistor is 240 V?
1. 0.05 A
2. 2.0 A
3. 20 A
4. 0.5 A
If the current flowing through a 4.0 Ω resistor is 8.0 A, what is the p.d. across the resistor?
1. 32 V
2. 2.0 V
3. 0.5 V
4. 12 V
If the current flowing through a 40 Ω resistor is 6.0 A, what is the p.d. across the resistor?
1. 6.0 V
2. 240 V
3. 0.15 V
4. 46 V
If the current flowing through a 4.0 Ω resistor is 3.0 A, what is the p.d. across the resistor?
1. 1.33 V
2. 0.75 V
3. 12 V
4. 7.0 V
If the current flowing through a resistor is 8.0 A, and the p.d. across it is 240 V, what is the value of the resistor?
1. 30 Ω
2. 0.033 Ω
3. 192 Ω
4. 19.2 Ω
If the current flowing through a resistor is 0.2 A, and the p.d. across it is 12.0 V, what is the value of the resistor?
1. 2.4 Ω
2. 60 Ω
3. 0.017 Ω
4. 6.0 Ω
If the current flowing through a resistor is 0.50 A, and the p.d. across it is 3.0 V, what is the value of the resistor?
1. 0.17 Ω
2. 1.5 Ω
3. 6.0 Ω
4. 60 Ω
Which of the following energy store transfer sequences applies to the function of a torch?
1. chemical => electrical => light
2. chemical => thermal => light
3. chemical => kinetic => thermal
4. chemical => thermal => kinetic
5. chemical => electric => kinetic
Which of the following energy store transfer sequences applies to the function of a candle?
1. chemical => electrical => light
2. chemical => thermal => light
3. chemical => kinetic => thermal
4. chemical => thermal => kinetic
5. chemical => electric => kinetic
Which of the following energy store transfer sequences applies to the bullet of a fired gun?
1. chemical => electrical => light
2. chemical => thermal => light
3. chemical => kinetic => thermal
4. chemical => thermal => kinetic
5. chemical => electric => kinetic
Which of the following energy store transfer sequences applies to the function of a motor cycle?
1. chemical => electrical => light
2. chemical => thermal => light
3. chemical => kinetic => thermal
4. chemical => thermal => kinetic
5. chemical => electric => kinetic
Which of the following energy store transfer sequences applies to the function of a renewable powered road vehicle?
1. chemical => electrical => light
2. chemical => thermal => light
3. chemical => kinetic => thermal
4. chemical => thermal => kinetic
5. chemical => electric => kinetic
Which of the following scientists first formulated the equation F = ma?
1. Isaac Newton
2. Luigi Galvani
3. George Simon Ohm
4. J J Thompson
5. Lisa Meitner
Which of the following scientists invented an early form of an ammeter which could detect tiny currents in an electric circuit?
1. Isaac Newton
2. Luigi Galvani
3. George Simon Ohm
4. J J Thompson
5. Lisa Meitner
Which of the following scientists has a unit of electrical resistance named after him?
1. Isaac Newton
2. Luigi Galvani
3. George Simon Ohm
4. J J Thompson
5. Lisa Meitner
Which of the following scientists first characterised the properties of an electron and proposed the plum pudding model of an atom?
1. Isaac Newton
2. Luigi Galvani
3. George Simon Ohm
4. J J Thompson
5. Lisa Meitner
Which of the following scientists was partly responsible for the discovery of nuclear fission?
1. Isaac Newton
2. Luigi Galvani
3. George Simon Ohm
4. J J Thompson
5. Lisa Meitner
Which of the following scientists has a unit of electric charge named after him?
1. Charles Augustin de Coulomb
2. James Chadwick
3. Henri Becquerel
4. Michael Faraday
5. John Ambrose Fleming
Which of the following scientists first discovered the neutron?
1. Charles Augustin de Coulomb
2. James Chadwick
3. Henri Becquerel
4. Michael Faraday
5. John Ambrose Fleming
Which of the following scientists first described that radiation from uranium ore passed through material to affect a photographic plate?
1. Charles Augustin de Coulomb
2. James Chadwick
3. Henri Becquerel
4. Michael Faraday
5. John Ambrose Fleming
Which of the following scientists did important early work on electrolysis?
1. Charles Augustin de Coulomb
2. James Chadwick
3. Henri Becquerel
4. Michael Faraday
5. John Ambrose Fleming
Which of the following scientists devised some important rules on electromagnetism with both hands!?
1. Charles Augustin de Coulomb
2. James Chadwick
3. Henri Becquerel
4. Michael Faraday
5. John Ambrose Fleming
Which of the following scientists described the first electronic quantum model of a hydrogen atom?
1. Niels Bohr
2. Ernest Rutherford
3. Marie Curie
4. Hans Geiger
5. John Dalton
Which of the following scientists did important work in nuclear physics including the discovery of alpha and beta radiation?
1. Niels Bohr
2. Ernest Rutherford
3. Marie Curie
4. Hans Geiger
5. John Dalton
Which of the following scientists discovered the radioactive elements polonium and radium while researching radioactivity?
1. Niels Bohr
2. Ernest Rutherford
3. Marie Curie
4. Hans Geiger
5. John Dalton
Which of the following scientists devised the first instrument to accurately measure radioactivity?
1. Niels Bohr
2. Ernest Rutherford
3. Marie Curie
4. Hans Geiger
5. John Dalton
Which of the following scientists proposed an 'atomic theory' very early in the 19th century?
1. Niels Bohr
2. Ernest Rutherford
3. Marie Curie
4. Hans Geiger
5. John Dalton

Doc Brown's qizsci general science multiple choice quizzes just for fun on key scientific descriptive words, general science facts, general science concept words, general science data words or numbers, optional general science revision at any age!, family general science quiz questions, pub quiz questions, general science quizzes for mobile phones, family quizzes on general science, general science team quizzes, general knowledge general science quizzes, or whatever!!!

Weight added to spring (N)	2	4	6	8	10
Length of spring (cm)	23	27	31	35	39

electrical	energy =>	useful/wasted energy outputs
energy input	transfers as a	3 J/s of wasted sound energy
of 600 J/s to	hair dryer	590 J/s of useful heat energy
the appliance	is being used	? J/s of ? energy

© Doc Brown's Christmas GENERAL SCIENCE QUIZ for teenagers of any age! click [?]